HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following best describes the role of insulin in the body?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insulin facilitates the movement of glucose into cells. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by promoting the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into cells, where it can be used for energy production. Choice A is incorrect because insulin doesn't break down glucose but rather helps cells take up glucose. Choice C is incorrect as insulin does not directly convert glucose into fat; excess glucose is stored as fat by other processes. Choice D is incorrect as insulin does not increase the breakdown of protein into amino acids; its primary role is in glucose metabolism.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) because it helps reduce the risk of aspiration, which is a significant factor in the development of VAP. Elevating the head of the bed enhances pulmonary hygiene, decreases the risk of microaspiration, and promotes better lung function. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine is essential for oral hygiene but is not specifically aimed at preventing VAP. Administering prophylactic antibiotics without a clear indication can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not a recommended routine practice to prevent VAP. Changing the ventilator circuit daily is essential for infection control but is not the most critical step in preventing VAP.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse who receives a patient in the operative suite prior to the actual surgery is in charge of the patient's care. Which of the following is NOT a task related to the nurse's intraoperative care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Going over the surgical procedure with the patient is typically done preoperatively, not intraoperatively. Intraoperative tasks of a nurse involve strictly adhering to asepsis during procedures, monitoring the patient's physical status, and providing emotional support to the patient and their family during the surgery. Choices B, C, and D are all tasks that are directly related to the nurse's responsibilities during the intraoperative phase of care.
Question 4 of 9
Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with mood regulation and is targeted by antidepressants?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin. Serotonin plays a vital role in mood regulation, and its imbalance is often associated with depression. Many antidepressants function by boosting serotonin levels in the brain. Dopamine (Choice B) is more linked to reward and pleasure pathways in the brain, not primarily targeted for mood regulation. GABA (Choice C) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce neuronal excitability, not primarily associated with mood regulation. Acetylcholine (Choice D) is involved in muscle movement and cognitive functions, not the primary target of antidepressants for mood regulation.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP to provide when assisting a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is to encourage self-care but allow rest periods. Clients with multiple sclerosis often experience fatigue, so promoting self-care activities while ensuring they have adequate rest periods is crucial for symptom management and maintaining independence. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can potentially exacerbate symptoms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is unrelated to the client's care needs during an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Choice D is not a priority instruction in this situation and may not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.
Question 6 of 9
When caring for a patient with a fresh tracheostomy, what is the nurse's first priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensuring the tracheostomy ties are secure. This is the nurse's first priority because it is critical to prevent accidental decannulation, which could compromise the patient's airway. Providing humidified oxygen, suctioning the tracheostomy tube, and monitoring for signs of infection are important aspects of care but ensuring the tracheostomy ties' security takes precedence to maintain the patient's airway.
Question 7 of 9
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.
Question 8 of 9
A client post-thyroidectomy is being monitored for signs of hypocalcemia. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse be most concerned about?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tingling in the hands and around the mouth. This symptom is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur after thyroidectomy if the parathyroid glands were inadvertently damaged during surgery. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are not specific to hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical symptom of hypocalcemia. Bradycardia (Choice D) is more commonly associated with hypothyroidism rather than hypocalcemia.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.