HESI LPN
HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which is a long-term complication of cleft lip and palate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Faulty dentition.' The older child with cleft lip and palate may experience psychological difficulties due to the cosmetic appearance of the defect, issues with impaired speech, and faulty dentition. This can lead to problems with dental alignment, crowding, missing or malformed teeth, and other dental issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as cognitive impairment, altered growth and development, and physical abilities are not typically considered long-term complications of cleft lip and palate.
Question 2 of 9
A female client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is admitted with a fractured left femur which is immobilized using a fracture traction splint in preparation for an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The nurse determines that her distal pulses are diminished in the left foot. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is crucial for the nurse to evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg in a client with diminished distal pulses. This assessment helps ensure that the splint is not causing any compromise to circulation. Verifying pulses and monitoring for leg conditions are important interventions but do not directly address the issue with the splint application in this scenario, making them less relevant.
Question 3 of 9
A child has developed a diaper rash, and the parents are using zinc oxide to treat it. What does the nurse suggest to aid in the removal of the zinc oxide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To completely remove ointment, especially zinc oxide, mineral oil should be used. Mineral oil helps in gently breaking down and lifting the ointment without causing irritation. Mild soap and water (Choice A) may not be effective in completely removing zinc oxide. A cotton ball (Choice B) may not provide the necessary lubrication to aid in the removal process. Alcohol swabs (Choice D) can be harsh on the skin and are not recommended for this purpose.
Question 4 of 9
Before selecting which medication to administer, which action should the nurse implement if a postoperative client reports incisional pain and has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a postoperative client reports incisional pain and has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia, the nurse should first compare the client's pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing. This action ensures that the client receives the appropriate medication based on their pain level. Determining the onset of action or asking the client to choose the medication does not guarantee that the right medication is administered according to the pain intensity. Documenting the pain report is important but should not be the first action when deciding which medication to administer.
Question 5 of 9
When performing postural drainage on a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which approach should the nurse use?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct approach when performing postural drainage on a client with COPD is to assist the patient into a position that allows gravity to help move secretions. This position helps drain secretions from specific segments of the lungs. Obtaining arterial blood gases (Choice A) is not directly related to postural drainage. While the client may be placed in multiple positions during postural drainage, the key is to position them to facilitate the movement of secretions, not just any five positions as mentioned in Choice B. Encouraging deep breathing (Choice D) is a good nursing intervention for overall respiratory health but is not specifically related to the technique of postural drainage.
Question 6 of 9
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of gum tissue. This side effect is important to report to the healthcare provider because it can lead to oral health problems. Choice A, drowsiness, is a common side effect of many antiepileptic drugs but is not specific to phenytoin. Choice C, weight gain, is not a typical side effect of phenytoin. Choice D, blurred vision, is not a common side effect of phenytoin; it is more commonly associated with other medications.
Question 7 of 9
A 2-year-old child with laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) is fussy and restless in the oxygen tent. The oxygen level in the tent is 25%, and blood gases are normal. What would be the correct action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The child with LTB should be placed in the mist tent with 30% oxygen. Restlessness is caused by poor oxygenation. The child should not be taken out of the oxygenated tent. While the mother could be asked to help comfort the child, and the health care provider may be notified, the priority is to set the oxygen at the correct level.
Question 8 of 9
An older client is receiving an IV of 5% dextrose in 0.45% normal saline at 75 mL/hour. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is developing a complication from this therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 9 of 9
A client with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the client avoid?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.