HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which information should the nurse collect during the admission assessment of a terminally ill client to an acute care facility?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During the admission assessment of a terminally ill client, it is crucial for the nurse to collect the client's wishes regarding organ donation. This information is vital to ensure that the care provided aligns with the client's values and preferences. Option A, 'Name of funeral home to contact,' is not a priority during the admission assessment and can be addressed later. Option C, 'Contact information for the client's next of kin,' is important but not as critical as understanding the client's wishes regarding organ donation. Option D, 'Healthcare proxy information,' is important for decision-making if the client is unable to make healthcare decisions, but knowing the client's wishes regarding organ donation takes precedence in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is teaching a pregnant client how to distinguish prelabor contractions from true labor contractions. Which statement about prelabor contractions is accurate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement about prelabor contractions (Braxton Hicks contractions) is that they are usually felt in the abdomen. They are irregular in nature and do not intensify with movement. Choice A is incorrect because prelabor contractions are irregular, not regular. Choice C is incorrect as prelabor contractions do not start in the back and radiate to the abdomen. Choice D is incorrect as prelabor contractions do not become more intense during walking.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.
Question 4 of 9
Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with night blindness?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency leads to night blindness because this vitamin is crucial for the formation of rhodopsin, a photopigment in the retina. Rhodopsin is essential for vision in low-light conditions. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to anemia and neurological issues but is not directly related to night blindness. Vitamin C deficiency can cause scurvy, affecting connective tissues, but not night vision. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to bone disorders but is not primarily associated with night blindness.
Question 5 of 9
What is the primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells is to transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and return carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs. Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the body's tissues. Choice B is incorrect because hemoglobin is not involved in protecting the body from infections. Choice C is incorrect because blood clotting is mainly facilitated by platelets and clotting factors, not hemoglobin. Choice D is incorrect because the regulation of body temperature is mainly controlled by processes like sweating and shivering, not by hemoglobin.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.
Question 7 of 9
A client who had a hip replacement is being prepared for discharge. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to prevent hip dislocation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid crossing your legs at the knees or ankles.' Crossing legs at the knees or ankles can cause excessive stress on the new hip joint, leading to a risk of dislocation. Choice B is incorrect because sleeping on the side of the operated hip can also increase the risk of dislocation. Choice C is incorrect as sitting in low chairs with knees higher than hips is a recommended position to prevent hip dislocation. Choice D is incorrect because bending forward at the waist to pick up objects can strain the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation.
Question 8 of 9
What information should the PN collect during the admission assessment of a terminally ill client to an acute care facility?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Understanding the client's wishes regarding organ donation is crucial as it aligns with end-of-life care preferences and ensures that the client's decisions are respected. While obtaining the name of a funeral home (Choice A) may be necessary, it is not typically part of the initial admission assessment. Contact information for the client's next of kin (Choice C) is important for communication but may not be directly related to the client's immediate end-of-life wishes. Health care proxy information (Choice D) is vital for decision-making if the client becomes incapacitated but may not be the primary focus during the initial admission assessment.
Question 9 of 9
A client post-splenectomy is at risk for infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Wash hands frequently and practice good hygiene.' After a splenectomy, the client is at an increased risk of infection due to the role of the spleen in the immune system. Maintaining good hand hygiene, such as frequent handwashing, is crucial to prevent infections. While taking prescribed antibiotics as directed (Choice A) is important if prescribed, it is not the most crucial preventive measure in this scenario. Avoiding crowded places and sick people (Choice B) can help reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens but may not always be feasible. Keeping the surgical site clean and dry (Choice D) is important for wound care but is not the primary preventive measure to protect against infections in a post-splenectomy client.