Questions 9

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

Community Health HESI Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors such as homelessness, alcoholism, and smoking, which weaken the immune system and make them more susceptible to respiratory infections. Choice A is incorrect as working with underprivileged children, while potentially exposing the individual to various illnesses, does not directly increase the risk of pneumonia. Choice B is less likely as exercise-induced wheezing may suggest asthma but does not directly correlate with pneumonia risk. Choice D, an aerobics instructor who eats only vegetables and skips meals, does not have the same level of risk factors for pneumonia as the homeless person in choice C.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is teaching a client about the healthy use of ego defense mechanisms. An appropriate goal for this client would be

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Reduce fear and protect self-esteem.' When teaching a client about the healthy use of ego defense mechanisms, the goal is to help the individual manage emotions effectively without denying reality. Using defense mechanisms in a healthy way aims to reduce fear and protect self-esteem while still addressing underlying issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not focus on the core principles of using defense mechanisms in a healthy manner. Minimizing anxiety and delaying apprehension, avoiding conflict and leaving unpleasant situations, and increasing independence and communicating more effectively do not directly align with the goal of utilizing ego defense mechanisms in a constructive way.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with right lower lobe (RLL) pneumonia. On assessment, the nurse notes crackles over the RLL. The client has significant pleuritic pain and is unable to take in a deep breath in order to cough effectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The client's inability to effectively clear the airway due to pain and sputum production hinders the cough mechanism, making 'Ineffective airway clearance' the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. Although impaired gas exchange may occur due to the pneumonia, the immediate issue is the inability to clear the airway. 'Ineffective breathing pattern' does not address the specific issue of airway clearance. 'Anxiety' is not the priority when the focus should be on the physical complications of pneumonia.

Question 4 of 5

Tertiary prevention would best be described as:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Tertiary prevention is the stage of prevention that aims at preventing disability and maximizing the use of remaining capacity. Choice A is more aligned with rehabilitation rather than tertiary prevention. Choice B refers to primary prevention by promoting health and preventing diseases. Choice C focuses on rehabilitation specific to alcohol and drug dependence, which is a form of secondary prevention, not tertiary prevention.

Question 5 of 5

A client is admitted for COPD. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and confusion are signs of hypoxia and hypercapnia in a client with COPD, indicating that the client's condition may be deteriorating rapidly. Immediate attention is necessary to prevent further complications. Nausea and vomiting (Choice A) may be related to various factors but do not directly indicate respiratory distress. Low-grade fever and cough (Choice C) are common in COPD and may not require immediate intervention. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum (Choice D) are typical symptoms of COPD exacerbation but do not signal an immediate need for attention as restlessness and confusion.

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