Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) is indeed responsible for the sense of smell. It is located in the nasal cavity and transmits olfactory information to the brain. The optic nerve (Choice B) is responsible for vision, the trigeminal nerve (Choice C) is responsible for sensation in the face, and the vagus nerve (Choice D) is responsible for various functions such as heart rate, digestion, and speech. Therefore, the correct answer is the olfactory nerve (Choice A).

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When documenting information in a client's medical record, the nurse should end each entry with their signature and title. This practice is crucial for legal and professional standards compliance as it ensures that the documentation is attributable to the responsible individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while crossing out errors, using a black ink pen, and leaving a blank line before each entry are good practices, they are not as critical as ensuring each entry is signed and titled by the nurse for accountability and traceability.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).' Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are primarily used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting blood flow in the legs and reducing venous stasis, which is a common risk for post-operative clients who are on bed rest. While SCDs do improve circulation in the legs indirectly, their primary purpose is DVT prevention. Preventing pressure ulcers is typically achieved through repositioning and support surfaces, not with SCDs, making choice C incorrect. SCDs are not used to alleviate post-operative pain, so choice D is also incorrect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct action when a nurse notices redness and warmth at the surgical wound post total hip arthroplasty is to notify the healthcare provider. These signs may indicate an infection, and prompt evaluation by the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate treatment. Applying an ice pack (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of a potential infection. Monitoring the client's temperature (Choice B) is important but not the priority when signs of infection are present. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor (Choice C) is necessary but should be accompanied by notifying the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. TENS works by delivering a mild electrical stimulus that can block pain signals from reaching the brain, effectively reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because TENS does not distract from pain but rather interferes with pain signals. Choice B is incorrect as TENS does not involve infusing medication into the spinal canal. Choice C is also incorrect because TENS does not target the cerebral cortex to dull pain perception but rather works at the level of nerve conduction.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The best response reassures the patient by explaining the process of verifying and marking the correct eye, a safety measure to prevent wrong-site surgery, directly addressing the patient's concern. Choice A is close but implies the ID bracelet alone determines the correct eye, missing the verification process. Choice B talks about confirmation but lacks details about marking the correct eye. Choice C mentions the surgeon's record but does not specify the direct verification and marking process, unlike Choice D.