HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1 Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which client will benefit most from the application of pneumatic compression devices to the lower extremities? The client who
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pneumatic compression devices are most beneficial for immobile clients on prescribed bedrest to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Applying these devices helps in promoting circulation and preventing blood clots. Choices B, C, and D do not specifically relate to the primary indication for pneumatic compression devices, making them incorrect. Pressure ulcers, diminished pedal pulse volume, and confusion with climbing out of bed may require different interventions or treatments.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who is reluctant to ambulate. What strategy should the nurse use to encourage the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct strategy for the nurse to encourage the postoperative client to ambulate is to explain the benefits of ambulation for recovery. Educating the client on how ambulation aids in preventing complications and promotes faster recovery can motivate their participation. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for the client to request to walk may lead to delays in mobilization. Choice C is incorrect as it may induce unnecessary fear in the client. Choice D is incorrect as offering pain medication before walking does not address the client's reluctance to ambulate.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed antibiotics. What should the nurse inform the client about antibiotic therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to fully eradicate the infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Informing the client about the importance of finishing the prescribed course helps in ensuring the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of recurrence. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics do not generally interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because drowsiness is not a common side effect of antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect because while some antibiotics may need to be taken with meals, it is not a universal rule for all antibiotics.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate as the priority intervention in a client experiencing hypoglycemia. This helps quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is not the priority in an acute hypoglycemic episode where immediate action is needed. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the client is unable to take anything by mouth.