When providing nursing care to a client receiving oxygen therapy via a nasal cannula, which of the following interventions would be appropriate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inspect the nares and ears for skin breakdown. This is important because the nasal cannula can cause skin breakdown due to prolonged use and friction. Ensuring that the skin is intact helps prevent complications. Choice A is incorrect as oxygen therapy via a nasal cannula does not involve mist. Choice C is incorrect as lubricating the tips of the cannula is not a standard practice and may lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because while cleanliness is important, maintaining sterile technique is not necessary for handling a nasal cannula in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct first step for thermal protection of a newborn is to dry the baby thoroughly immediately after birth. This helps prevent heat loss and is crucial in maintaining the baby's body temperature. Choice B, covering the baby with a clean, dry cloth after the cord has been cut, is not the initial step as drying the baby comes first. Choice C, drying the baby thoroughly after the cord has been cut, is also not the first step. Choice D, covering the baby with a clean, dry cloth immediately after birth, is not as effective as drying the baby to prevent heat loss.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A community hospital is categorized under secondary level health care. Secondary level health care facilities, like community hospitals, provide specialized outpatient care, diagnostic services, and treatment that are more complex than what is offered in primary health care settings. Choice B, primary health care, refers to basic and routine health care services typically provided by family doctors or general practitioners, which is not the level of care provided by community hospitals. Tertiary level care (choice C) involves highly specialized and complex medical services such as neurosurgery or organ transplants, which are beyond the scope of services provided by community hospitals. Intermediate level care (choice D) is not a recognized category in the hierarchy of health care levels.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: To excel in a health education program, a Public Health Nurse (PHN) must possess a combination of teaching-learning strategies to effectively impart knowledge, provide accurate information to ensure credibility, and communicate ideas effectively to engage and interact with the audience. Therefore, all of these skills are essential for a PHN to succeed in her health education program. Choices A, B, and C are integral components of a successful health education program, making option D the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Echolalia (repeating others' words) and a shuffling gait are common symptoms of Parkinson's disease. These symptoms result from the degeneration of the basal ganglia in the brain that controls movement and speech. Choice A is incorrect because non-intention tremors are not typically associated with Parkinson's disease. Choice C is incorrect as muscle spasm and a bent-over posture are not classic manifestations of Parkinson's disease. Choice D is incorrect since intention tremors and jerky movement of the elbows are not characteristic of Parkinson's disease.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In situations where a client's condition worsens and the caregiver is no longer able to provide sufficient care, the first action to implement is to assign a home health care aide to provide daily care. This ensures that the client's immediate needs are met and that they receive proper care and support. Requesting a chaplain for counseling (Choice A) may be beneficial but is not the most urgent action. Discussing placing the wife in a nursing home (Choice C) should only be considered after assessing the client's needs and exploring all other options. Contacting the client's children (Choice D) can be helpful but does not address the immediate need for daily care that the client requires.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Albuterol can cause tachycardia as a side effect due to its stimulant effect on the heart. It acts as a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, leading to increased heart rate. Hypoglycemia (choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is also not typically associated with albuterol use. Hypotension (choice D) is less likely to occur as albuterol usually causes tachycardia rather than hypotension.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). Elevated CPK levels indicate muscle damage, including damage to the cardiac muscle, which aligns with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Choice A, low serum albumin, is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Choice B, high serum cholesterol, is more associated with conditions like atherosclerosis rather than acute myocardial infarction. Choice C, abnormally low white blood cell count, is typically not a lab value associated with myocardial infarction; instead, it could suggest other conditions like infections or bone marrow issues.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention focuses on preventing the development of diseases or injuries before they occur by promoting healthy behaviors and lifestyles. In this scenario, the health program targeting lifestyle modifications to reduce chronic diseases aligns with primary prevention efforts. Choice B, secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice C, tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing diseases to prevent complications. Choice D, quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid the consequences of unnecessary or excessive interventions in healthcare.