HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
When assessing readiness to learn about insulin self-administration, what indicates the client is ready to learn?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I can concentrate best in the morning.' Readiness to learn is indicated by the client's ability to focus and concentrate, as mentioned in the question. Choice B, 'I feel anxious about learning the process,' indicates apprehension and may hinder the learning process. Choice C, 'I have a lot of questions about insulin,' shows interest but does not directly indicate readiness to learn. Choice D, 'I am not sure if I can manage this at home,' reflects uncertainty and lack of confidence, which may suggest the client is not fully prepared to learn.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit has received change-of-shift report and will care for four clients. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C - 'Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence.' This task falls within the scope of duties for an assistive personnel (AP). Updating care plans (Choice A), reinforcing teaching (Choice B), and applying sterile dressings (Choice D) typically require a higher level of training and expertise, making them tasks that should not be assigned to an AP. Assigning appropriate tasks based on skill levels ensures safe and effective patient care.
Question 3 of 9
The client is receiving discharge instructions for warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin need to be consistent with their vitamin K intake to maintain a balance in blood clotting. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K is essential as they can interfere with the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding warfarin therapy. Regular blood testing to monitor INR levels ensures the medication is working effectively, taking the medication at the same time daily maintains a consistent level in the bloodstream, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding due to warfarin's anticoagulant effects.
Question 4 of 9
A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is unstable and has vital signs measured every 15 minutes by an electronic blood pressure machine. The nurse notices the machine begins to measure the blood pressure at varied intervals and the readings are inconsistent. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should adjust the machine settings. If the electronic blood pressure machine is providing varied intervals and inconsistent readings, it indicates a potential malfunction. Changing the settings may help correct the issue and ensure accurate measurements. Discontinuing the machine and measuring manually every 15 minutes (Choice A) may be time-consuming and impractical. Cleaning the machine (Choice C) is important for routine maintenance but may not address the current issue of varied intervals and inconsistent readings. Increasing the frequency of the readings (Choice D) does not address the problem of inaccurate measurements caused by the malfunctioning machine.
Question 6 of 9
A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to assist the client back to bed. A decrease in oxygen saturation while ambulating indicates hypoxemia, and the immediate priority is to stabilize oxygen levels. Returning the client to bed allows for rest and decreased oxygen demand, potentially preventing further desaturation. Encouraging continued ambulation (Choice B) may worsen the hypoxemia by increasing oxygen demand. Obtaining portable oxygen (Choice C) is essential but should not delay addressing the low oxygen saturation. Moving the oximetry probe (Choice D) may not address the underlying cause of decreased oxygen saturation and should not be the first intervention.
Question 7 of 9
When admitting a client with an abdominal wound, which precaution should be taken?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When admitting a client with an abdominal wound, contact precautions should be implemented. Contact precautions are used to prevent the spread of infections that are spread by direct or indirect contact. In the case of abdominal wounds, bacteria and pathogens can easily be transmitted through contact with the wound or wound drainage. Droplet precautions are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Airborne precautions are used for infections spread through the air, like tuberculosis. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infections and should be followed in addition to specific precautions based on the type of infection.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is admitting a client. Which of the following information should the nurse document in the client's record first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. When admitting a client, the nurse should document assessment data first. This information is crucial as it provides a baseline for planning care and treatment. By documenting the assessment initially, the nurse can accurately identify the client's needs and prioritize care. Choice B, Plan of care, would be developed based on the assessment findings, so it should come after the initial assessment. Choices C and D, Client history and Medication list, are important but would typically be documented after the assessment to ensure that the most current and relevant information is captured in the client's record.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.