HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
When assessing readiness to learn about insulin self-administration, what indicates the client is ready to learn?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I can concentrate best in the morning.' Readiness to learn is indicated by the client's ability to focus and concentrate, as mentioned in the question. Choice B, 'I feel anxious about learning the process,' indicates apprehension and may hinder the learning process. Choice C, 'I have a lot of questions about insulin,' shows interest but does not directly indicate readiness to learn. Choice D, 'I am not sure if I can manage this at home,' reflects uncertainty and lack of confidence, which may suggest the client is not fully prepared to learn.
Question 2 of 9
A client with a terminal illness is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings indicates that the client's death is imminent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cold extremities are a common sign observed in clients nearing death. This occurs due to decreased blood circulation as the body's systems begin to shut down. Cold extremities indicate poor perfusion and reduced function of vital organs. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not typically seen in clients approaching death; instead, a decreased appetite is more common. Elevated blood pressure (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients nearing the end of life, as blood pressure tends to decrease. An increased level of consciousness (Choice D) is also not indicative of imminent death, as clients near death often experience decreased level of consciousness or become unresponsive.
Question 3 of 9
The healthcare professional is preparing to administer potassium chloride intravenously to a client with hypokalemia. Which action is most important?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution. Potassium chloride should never be administered as a rapid IV push as it can lead to severe complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. Diluting the medication and administering it slowly helps reduce the risk of adverse effects. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (Choice A) and checking urine output (Choice B) are important aspects of patient assessment but not the most crucial when administering potassium chloride. Administering potassium chloride as a rapid IV push (Choice C) is dangerous and can result in serious harm to the client.
Question 4 of 9
A charge nurse is explaining the various stages of the lifespan to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following examples should the charge nurse include as a developmental task for a young adult?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Devoting time to establishing an occupation. Young adults typically focus on building their careers and personal identities, making establishing an occupation a crucial developmental task for this age group. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the typical developmental tasks of young adults. Choice A relates more to middle adulthood where individuals take on mentoring roles, choice B is more characteristic of the tasks associated with adjusting to late adulthood, and choice D is more relevant to middle adulthood when individuals may find themselves caring for both their own children and aging parents.
Question 5 of 9
Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.
Question 6 of 9
When using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client's indwelling urinary catheter, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when using an open irrigation technique on a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output. This calculation helps ensure an accurate measurement of the client's actual urine output by accounting for the irrigation fluid introduced into the catheter. Placing the client in a side-lying position (Choice A) is not directly related to the irrigation procedure. Instilling a specific volume of irrigation fluid (Choice B) may vary depending on the client's condition and the healthcare provider's order. Using a 20 mL syringe for irrigation (Choice D) is a matter of equipment choice and does not directly impact the calculation of urine output in this context.
Question 7 of 9
A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional plan to initiate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions (Choice C) involve measures such as negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Contact precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through direct contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet precautions (Choice B) are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, typically over short distances. Protective environment (Choice D) is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens, not for diseases like tuberculosis that spread through the air.
Question 8 of 9
A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.
Question 9 of 9
A client is scheduled to have his alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level checked. The client asks the nurse to explain the laboratory test. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "This test will provide information about the function of your liver." Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is an enzyme mainly found in the liver. An elevated ALT level may indicate liver damage or disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ALT is specifically related to liver function and not indicative of blood clot risk, heart performance, or kidney function.