HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI Questions
Question 1 of 9
When assessing a patient's feet, the nurse notices that the toenails are thick and separated from the nail bed. What does the nurse most likely suspect is the cause of this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse would most likely suspect fungi as the cause of thickened and separated toenails. Fungal infections can lead to changes in the nail structure, causing them to thicken and separate from the nail bed. Friction, nail polish, and nail polish remover are less likely to cause these specific nail changes. Friction typically leads to calluses or blisters, while nail polish and nail polish remover do not commonly result in thickened and separated toenails.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for two clients who report following the same religion. Which of the following information should the nurse consider when planning care for these clients?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Religious beliefs can vary widely even among individuals of the same faith. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that the impact and interpretation of religious beliefs can differ from person to person. Choice A is incorrect as individuals within the same religion can have diverse feelings and interpretations. Choice B is incorrect because a shared religious background does not necessarily mean that individuals hold the same beliefs. Choice D is not the best course of action as discussing differences and commonalities in beliefs may not always be necessary or appropriate for providing care.
Question 3 of 9
A post-op nurse has an indwelling catheter in place for gravity drainage. The nurse notes that the client's urine bag has been empty for 2 hours. The first action the nurse should take is to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the urine bag has not filled for 2 hours is to check if the tubing is kinked. Kinks in the tubing can obstruct the flow of urine from the catheter, leading to decreased drainage. Increasing the IV fluid rate is not the appropriate initial action in this situation as the primary concern is with the catheter drainage. Checking the catheter insertion site would be secondary to ensuring proper drainage. Contacting the healthcare provider is not necessary as the issue can often be resolved by checking for simple tubing obstructions first.
Question 4 of 9
During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.
Question 5 of 9
A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is counseling an older adult who describes having difficulty with several issues. Which of the following problems verbalized by the client should the nurse identify as the priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The statement expressing the loss of friends is the priority issue as it indicates potential grief and emotional distress. Losing multiple friends within a short period can have a profound impact on an older adult's emotional well-being. Option A expresses regret but does not indicate an immediate emotional crisis. Option B focuses on stress related to dependence, which is important but not as urgent as coping with loss. Option D highlights a memory concern, which is significant but does not address the emotional impact of loss.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease reports black, tarry stools. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. Black, tarry stools can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious complication that requires urgent medical evaluation and intervention. This finding should not be dismissed or considered normal without further assessment. Option A is incorrect because black, tarry stools are not a normal finding and may signify a significant health issue. Option C is incorrect as immediate action is needed rather than just documenting the finding. Option D is not the best choice as it simply suggests seeking medical attention without emphasizing the urgency of the situation. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management of potential gastrointestinal bleeding.
Question 8 of 9
During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse's priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.
Question 9 of 9
A client has acute renal failure. Which of the following assessments provides the most accurate measure of the client's fluid status?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Daily weight is the most accurate measure of fluid status in a client with acute renal failure. Fluctuations in weight reflect changes in body fluid volume, including both fluid retention or loss. Intake and output, while important, may not always accurately reflect overall fluid status as it does not account for insensible losses. Urine specific gravity can provide information on urine concentration but does not offer a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid status. Peripheral edema, although a sign of fluid retention, is a more subjective assessment and may not always accurately reflect the client's fluid status like daily weight monitoring does.