HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
When administering ceftriaxone sodium intravenously to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that can indicate a serious condition like airway obstruction or a severe allergic reaction, necessitating immediate intervention to maintain the client's airway and prevent further complications. While headache, pruritus, and nausea are important to assess and manage, they are not as immediately life-threatening as stridor, which requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is conducting intake interviews of children at a city clinic. Which child is most susceptible to contracting lead poisoning?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Children playing on aging playground equipment are at higher risk of lead poisoning due to potential exposure from old paint. This is because deteriorating paint on older playground equipment may contain lead, which can be ingested by young children. Choices A, C, and D do not directly involve potential exposure to lead paint, making them less susceptible to lead poisoning compared to a child playing on aging playground equipment.
Question 3 of 9
A female client with borderline personality disorder is being discharged today. During morning rounds, the client complains about the aloofness of the night shift nurse and expresses joy to see the nurse on duty. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client's dichotomous tendency?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the best response as it acknowledges the client's feelings while exploring their concerns. By asking which nurse was acting aloof, the nurse shows understanding and allows the client to express their feelings further. This response validates the client's emotions and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice B focuses on a future action without addressing the immediate concern at hand. Choice C seeks clarification on the night nurse's behavior, which is a good approach but lacks the personal touch of Choice A. Choice D shifts the focus away from the client's current feelings and concerns, missing the opportunity to address the dichotomous thinking displayed by the client.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is making assignments for a new graduate from a practical nursing program who is orienting to the unit. Because the unit is particularly busy this day, there will be little time to provide supervision of this new employee. Which client is the best for the nurse to assign this newly graduate practical nurse? A client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is option A because this client is the most stable and requires less supervision. Assigning a client whose discharge has been delayed due to a postoperative infection to the newly graduate practical nurse would be appropriate during a busy day as they are likely to need routine care and monitoring rather than immediate intensive interventions. Option B involves a client with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes on a sliding scale for insulin administration, which requires close monitoring and prompt intervention, making it a less suitable assignment for a new graduate who may need more guidance. Option C, a newly admitted patient with a head injury requiring frequent assessments, would demand a higher level of vigilance and expertise, which may be challenging for a new graduate nurse to handle without adequate supervision. Option D, a patient receiving IV heparin regulated based on protocol, involves complex medication management that may be too advanced for a new graduate nurse without sufficient oversight.
Question 5 of 9
Which instruction is most important for the client who receives a new prescription for risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most important instruction for a client receiving risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. Risedronate sodium can cause esophageal irritation, and staying upright helps prevent this side effect. While increasing vitamin D intake, starting a low-impact exercise routine, and taking the medication with a full glass of water are all beneficial for managing osteoporosis, the immediate need is to prevent esophageal irritation caused by risedronate sodium.
Question 6 of 9
Based on the information provided in this client's medical record during labor, which intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Turning the client to the right lateral position is essential as it can improve fetal oxygenation and uterine blood flow, promoting better labor outcomes. This intervention helps relieve pressure on blood vessels, enhancing blood flow to the placenta and improving oxygen supply to the fetus. Applying oxygen at a specific rate may not address the underlying issue of compromised blood flow and oxygenation. Stopping the oxytocin infusion is not the priority unless medically indicated as it can affect labor progression. While monitoring the progress of labor is important, actively addressing the compromised fetal oxygenation and uterine blood flow by changing the client's position takes precedence in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the adult male client to follow when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test is to urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours. This method ensures proper collection for an accurate creatinine clearance measurement. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different procedure for a clean-catch urine sample, not suitable for creatinine clearance. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests catheterization, which is not typically done for a creatinine clearance test, and it is not necessary for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the standard procedure for a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance; the urine should be collected continuously over 24 hours, not at specified intervals.
Question 8 of 9
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. The client is experiencing difficulty breathing and is very anxious. The nurse notes that the client's oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering supplemental oxygen is the first priority to address low oxygen saturation and ease breathing. In a client with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing and anxiety with oxygen saturation at 88%, providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence over other actions. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for increased oxygenation. Performing a thorough respiratory assessment is important but should come after stabilizing the client's oxygen levels. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline is not the priority in this situation and does not directly address the client's respiratory distress.
Question 9 of 9
A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it provides a truthful yet sensitive response to the child's question. Saying that the body will stop functioning and that there will be no more pain helps the child understand what to expect without unnecessary details or causing distress. Choice A is too technical and may not be suitable for a child. Choice B might give the impression of a peaceful passing, which may not always be the case. Choice D introduces the concept of feeling tired, which might not be accurate or helpful in this context.