HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the primary nursing intervention that the practical nurse should perform before administering ampicillin to a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most important nursing intervention before administering ampicillin to a client with a urinary tract infection is to obtain a clean-catch urine specimen. This specimen is crucial for determining the causative organism and evaluating the effectiveness of pharmacological therapy. It should be collected before starting treatment with an anti-infective agent to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of the infection.
Question 2 of 5
A client diagnosed with angina has been prescribed nitrate isosorbide dinitrate. Which instruction should the practical nurse reinforce in this client's teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction that the practical nurse (PN) should reinforce with a client prescribed nitrate isosorbide dinitrate is to avoid getting up quickly and to rise slowly. Nitrates can cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. By rising slowly, the client can prevent the occurrence of orthostatic hypotension and its associated symptoms.
Question 3 of 5
A client is prescribed phenobarbital 100 mg daily for the treatment of seizures. Which statement made by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication phenobarbital?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Phenobarbital should be taken at the same time every day to maintain blood levels and enhance compliance. Common side effects of phenobarbital include drowsiness, lethargy, dizziness, and nausea; therefore, it is best to take it before bedtime to minimize these effects and improve sleep quality.
Question 4 of 5
A client who takes metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is taking nothing by mouth (NPO) for surgery. What pre-op prescription should the practical nurse (PN) anticipate for this client's glucose management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a client taking metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is NPO for surgery, it is essential to manage their glucose levels effectively. In this scenario, the best approach is to prescribe regular insulin subcutaneously according to a sliding scale based on the client's blood glucose levels. This method allows for precise adjustment of insulin doses to maintain blood glucose within the target range while the client is unable to take oral medications.
Question 5 of 5
An adolescent client with a seizure disorder is prescribed the anticonvulsant medication carbamazepine. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider if the client develops which condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Develops a sore throat.' When a client on carbamazepine develops flu-like symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, sore throat, and fever, it could indicate blood dyscrasias (aplastic anemia, leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia), which are potential adverse effects of the medication. These symptoms warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications.