HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1 Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the most important information for the nurse to provide to a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately.' When starting an SSRI, clients should be informed to report any thoughts of self-harm promptly. SSRIs can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially in the early stages of treatment. This information is crucial for the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, avoiding foods high in tyramine, and expecting immediate improvement within 24 hours are not the most critical pieces of information for a client starting on an SSRI.
Question 2 of 5
What is the primary function of neutrophils?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Phagocytotic action. Neutrophils are key components of the immune system, primarily involved in the phagocytosis of bacteria and other pathogens. Choice A, Heparin secretion, is incorrect as heparin is primarily secreted by mast cells and basophils. Choice B, Transport oxygen, is incorrect as this is mainly the function of red blood cells. Choice D, Antibody formation, is incorrect as antibody production is primarily carried out by B lymphocytes.
Question 3 of 5
A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Vitamin K can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin, so it is essential for clients on warfarin therapy to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, so choice A is incorrect. Choices C and D are unrelated to the dietary restrictions needed for clients taking warfarin and are therefore incorrect.
Question 4 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease is being evaluated for dialysis. Which laboratory value would be most concerning to the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium 6.2 mEq/L. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys struggle to regulate potassium levels, leading to hyperkalemia. A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L is dangerously high and can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL may indicate anemia, which is common in chronic kidney disease but is not immediately life-threatening. Creatinine and BUN levels are markers of kidney function; although elevated levels indicate kidney impairment, they are not acutely life-threatening like severe hyperkalemia.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with acute pancreatitis is to administer intravenous fluids as prescribed. Intravenous fluids are crucial to maintain hydration and electrolyte balance in clients with acute pancreatitis. Providing a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended initially for clients with acute pancreatitis, as they may need to be kept NPO (nothing by mouth) to rest the pancreas. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice B) may not be appropriate if the client is experiencing severe symptoms and requires intravenous fluids. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice D) is important but not the immediate intervention needed to address the fluid and electrolyte imbalances associated with acute pancreatitis.