What is a primary responsibility of a healthcare manager?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Financial oversight is a primary responsibility of a healthcare manager. Healthcare managers are responsible for managing the financial aspects of healthcare facilities, including budgeting, financial planning, and ensuring financial sustainability. Direct patient care (choice A) is typically the responsibility of healthcare providers such as doctors and nurses, not managers. Ignoring staff concerns (choice C) is counterproductive and goes against effective management practices. Minimizing staff training (choice D) is also not a responsibility of a healthcare manager; on the contrary, they should ensure adequate training and development opportunities for their staff to improve patient care and overall performance.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify the medication name and dosage administered to the client in the incident report. This information is crucial for accurate documentation and investigation of the medication error. Choice A is incorrect because incident reports are usually kept confidential and not for personal keeping. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining an order from the client's provider is not necessary to complete an incident report. Choice D, while important, is not the only essential information needed for the incident report.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The main objective of palliative care is to provide relief from symptoms and improve quality of life. Palliative care focuses on enhancing the quality of life for patients facing serious illnesses by providing relief from symptoms such as pain, stress, and other physical and emotional issues. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to cure the disease but rather to manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as the goal of palliative care is not to extend hospital stays unnecessarily but to improve the patient's well-being. Choice D is incorrect as palliative care is not solely focused on treatment but takes a holistic approach to care that includes addressing physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: By using the Lund and Browder chart. The Lund and Browder chart is specifically designed to assess the extent of burns in children accurately, taking into account the variation in body proportions as children grow. This method provides a more precise estimation of the total body surface area affected by burns in pediatric patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The Rule of Nines is more suitable for adults, not children. The Rule of Tens is not a standard method for assessing burn extent, and the Parkland Formula is used to calculate fluid resuscitation requirements in burn patients, not to determine the extent of burns.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Battery.' Administering the injection without the client's consent constitutes battery. Assault involves the threat of harm, not the actual act. False imprisonment is restraining a client against their will, which does not apply here. Libel refers to a false written statement, which is not relevant in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Prolonged bed rest can lead to hypocalcemia due to decreased mobility and bone resorption. In this scenario, the low serum calcium level of 4.0 mg/dL is likely a result of decreased bone activity and calcium release due to prolonged bed rest. Renal insufficiency would more likely lead to hypercalcemia due to impaired excretion of calcium by the kidneys. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by increased calcium levels as a result of excess parathyroid hormone. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D can cause hypercalcemia by increasing intestinal absorption of calcium.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "The use of oral contraceptives." Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis include factors such as immobility, surgery, cancer, obesity, smoking, and the use of oral contraceptives. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood type and Rh factor do not play a role in the development of deep vein thrombosis, and being underweight is not typically considered a risk factor for this condition.