Questions 9

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

Fundamentals of Nursing HESI Questions

Question 1 of 5

What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

Question 2 of 5

A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most appropriate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, it is crucial to involve the wife in the care of the client to provide support and empower her. Asking the wife how she would like to participate allows her to be actively involved in decision-making and caregiving. Providing information about hospice (choice B) might be premature as the couple may still be digesting the diagnosis. Encouraging the wife to visit during the treatment process (choice C) may not address her immediate need for involvement and support. Referring her to a support group for family members (choice D) is helpful but involving her directly in the client's care is a more immediate and personalized approach.

Question 3 of 5

Upon completing the admission documents, the nurse learns that the 87-year-old client does not have an advance directive. What action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to give information about advance directives to the client. By providing this information, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their care preferences. Choice A is incorrect because simply recording the lack of advance directive does not address the client's need for information. Choice C is incorrect because assuming the client wishes a full code without discussing it with them is not appropriate and may not align with the client's wishes. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should directly address the issue with the client rather than involving another staff member.

Question 4 of 5

A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.

Question 5 of 5

The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the LPN/LVN to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct method for transferring an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair involves moving the chair parallel to the right side of the bed and standing the client on the right foot. This technique provides a stable and safe transfer by utilizing the stronger side of the client to support the transfer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side, assisting the client to a standing position and placing the right hand on the armrest, and having the client pivot to the left before sitting do not address the client's left-sided weakness and may increase the risk of falls or injuries.

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