Upon assessing a newborn immediately after delivery, you note that the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate of 90 beats/min. What is the most appropriate initial management for this newborn?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a newborn, a heart rate below 100 beats/min indicates the need for positive pressure ventilation to improve oxygenation. Providing blow-by oxygen or assessing skin condition/color may not address the primary issue of inadequate oxygenation due to the low heart rate. Starting chest compressions and contacting medical control is not warranted as the newborn is breathing spontaneously and only has a slightly low heart rate, which can be managed initially with positive pressure ventilations.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. While special dietary needs may be important for a child with Down syndrome, they are typically not the primary concern for a 1-month-old. The nurse would be least likely to focus on this aspect as immediate issues such as monitoring for congenital heart defects (echocardiogram), cervical spine abnormalities (radiographs), and respiratory infections are more critical in the early months. Adhering to dietary needs is important, but it is usually addressed as the child grows older and is not the priority during the infant stage.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Long-lasting active immunity is conferred. Tetanus toxoid injection works by stimulating the child's body to produce its antibodies, providing long-lasting active immunity. Choice A is incorrect because passive immunity is not conferred for life; it is temporary and involves receiving antibodies rather than producing them internally. Choice C is incorrect as the immunity conferred by the tetanus toxoid injection is not lifelong natural immunity but rather active immunity stimulated by the body's immune response. Choice D is also incorrect since passive natural immunity is not conferred by the tetanus toxoid injection, and it is not temporary.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing action after corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is to assess the IV site for infiltration. This is crucial as it ensures proper fluid administration and prevents complications such as phlebitis or infiltration-related tissue damage. Applying restraints (Choice A) would not be appropriate in this situation as it is not related to the immediate post-operative care of an infant with an IV infusion. Administering a mild sedative (Choice B) is not indicated as the primary concern post-surgery is monitoring the IV site and the infant's response to the surgery. Attaching the nasogastric tube to wall suction (Choice D) is not the priority at this time, as assessing the IV site takes precedence to prevent potential complications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In atopic dermatitis, the characteristic presentation includes a dry, red, scaly rash with lichenification. This appearance is due to chronic inflammation and scratching. Choice A is incorrect as erythematous papulovesicular rash is more indicative of conditions like contact dermatitis. Choice C is incorrect as pustular vesicles with honey-colored exudates are seen in impetigo. Choice D is incorrect as hypopigmented oval scaly lesions are more characteristic of tinea versicolor.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of a lumbar puncture is to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid for analysis. This sample helps in diagnosing conditions such as meningitis by evaluating the presence of pathogens or abnormalities in the cerebrospinal fluid. Measuring the pressure of cerebrospinal fluid (Choice A) is not the main objective of a lumbar puncture, although it can be done during the procedure. Relieving intracranial pressure (Choice C) is not the direct purpose of a lumbar puncture, as other interventions are typically used for this purpose. Assessing the presence of infection in the spinal fluid (Choice D) is related to the overall goal of obtaining a sample for analysis, making it a secondary outcome of the procedure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Placing the infant on their back to sleep is the correct recommendation to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This sleep position has been shown to significantly decrease the incidence of SIDS. Using a pacifier during sleep (Choice B) can also help reduce the risk, but it is secondary to the back sleeping position. Having the infant sleep on their side (Choice C) is not recommended, as it increases the risk of SIDS. Keeping the infant's room cool (Choice D) may provide a comfortable sleeping environment but does not directly reduce the risk of SIDS.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In small children, altered mental status can manifest as a lack of attention to the presence of unfamiliar individuals, such as the EMT-B. This lack of engagement may indicate confusion, disorientation, or impaired cognitive function. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as recognizing parents, exhibiting fear, or maintaining consistent eye contact do not necessarily indicate altered mental status. Recognizing parents is a normal response, fear can be a typical reaction to unfamiliar situations, and making eye contact may be a sign of curiosity or comfort rather than a reflection of mental status.