HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
The UAP reports to the PN that an assigned client experiences SOB when the bed is lowered for bathing. Which action should the PN implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Advising the UAP to allow the client to rest before completing the bath is the most appropriate action to take. This helps manage the shortness of breath (SOB) experienced by the client and prevents further stress. By giving the client time to rest, the PN ensures the client's comfort and safety during care activities. The other options are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario: obtaining further data about activity intolerance (choice A) may delay addressing the current issue, obtaining vital signs and pulse oximetry (choice C) is important but not as immediate as allowing the client to rest, and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is premature before trying a simple intervention like allowing the client to rest.
Question 2 of 9
What information should the PN collect during the admission assessment of a terminally ill client to an acute care facility?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Understanding the client's wishes regarding organ donation is crucial as it aligns with end-of-life care preferences and ensures that the client's decisions are respected. While obtaining the name of a funeral home (Choice A) may be necessary, it is not typically part of the initial admission assessment. Contact information for the client's next of kin (Choice C) is important for communication but may not be directly related to the client's immediate end-of-life wishes. Health care proxy information (Choice D) is vital for decision-making if the client becomes incapacitated but may not be the primary focus during the initial admission assessment.
Question 3 of 9
Patients are coming into the emergency room as a result of an apartment house fire. You are examining a patient who is in distress but has no visible burn marks. You suspect that she is suffering from inhalation burns. Which of the following signs would NOT be associated with inhalation burns?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clear sputum would not be associated with inhalation burns. Inhalation burns typically present with symptoms like singed nasal hairs, conjunctivitis, hoarseness, and possibly soot in sputum due to smoke inhalation. Clear sputum suggests that there is no significant inflammation or injury to the respiratory tract, which is not consistent with the typical findings in inhalation burns. The other choices are associated with inhalation burns: singed nasal hairs can occur due to exposure to hot air or gases, conjunctivitis can result from irritating substances in smoke, and hoarseness can be due to airway irritation.
Question 4 of 9
During an inspection of a client's fingernails, the nurse notices a suspected abnormality in the shape and character of the nails. Which finding should the nurse document?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clubbed nails are a significant finding in clients with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. This abnormality is characterized by an increased curvature of the nails and softening of the nail bed. It can indicate underlying health conditions such as respiratory or cardiovascular issues. Splinter hemorrhages (B) are small areas of bleeding under the nails, typically associated with infective endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (C) are often a normal age-related change in the nails. Koilonychia or spoon nails (D) present as a concave shape of the nails and are commonly seen in clients with iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. Therefore, documenting clubbed nails is the most relevant abnormality to report and investigate further.
Question 5 of 9
A dispersion consists of a solute dispersed through a dispersing vehicle. Which of the following dispersions is a liquid for topical application that contains insoluble solids or liquids?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Lotion.' A lotion is a liquid dispersion that contains insoluble solids or liquids for topical application. Ointments are more semi-solid and occlusive, pastes are thicker and contain higher concentrations of solids, and gels have a jelly-like consistency due to their three-dimensional network structure. Therefore, among the options, a lotion is the most suitable choice for containing insoluble solids or liquids for topical application.
Question 6 of 9
A client reports being able to swallow only small bites of solid food and liquids for the last 3 months. The PN should assess the client for what additional information?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: History of alcohol or tobacco use. A history of alcohol or tobacco use is significant as both are risk factors for esophageal cancer or other esophageal disorders that could cause difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). This information helps in evaluating the underlying cause of the symptom. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. While a past traumatic injury to the neck could potentially cause swallowing difficulties, given the chronic nature of the symptom in this case, it is more important to focus on potential risk factors associated with esophageal disorders like alcohol and tobacco use. Daily consumption of hot beverages and daily dietary intake of roughage are less likely to be directly related to the client's current swallowing issue.
Question 7 of 9
When caring for a client with colostomy, which topical skin preparation should the PN apply around the stoma?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Stomadhesive.' Stomadhesive is a protective barrier used around the stoma to prevent skin irritation and to secure the colostomy bag. This preparation helps to maintain skin integrity and prevent complications such as skin breakdown. Antiseptic cream (Choice A) is not typically used around the stoma as it can irritate the skin. Petroleum jelly (Choice B) is also not recommended as it can interfere with the adhesive properties of the colostomy appliance. Cornstarch (Choice C) is not suitable for application around the stoma as it can promote moisture and lead to skin irritation.
Question 8 of 9
A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.
Question 9 of 9
A client post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery is concerned about the risk of infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Keep the incision sites clean and dry.' After CABG surgery, maintaining the cleanliness and dryness of the incision sites is crucial to prevent infections. This practice reduces the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the surgical wound, promoting healing and preventing complications. Option A, while important, does not fully encompass the preventive measures necessary to avoid infections post-surgery. Option B is significant if antibiotics are prescribed, but ensuring cleanliness directly addresses infection prevention. Option C is reactive and focuses on addressing infection after it occurs, rather than proactively preventing it.