HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals Questions
Question 1 of 9
The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that are associated with this problem include which of these?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Neuroblastoma, a common solid tumor in children, often presents with symptoms related to the mass effect it causes. Abdominal mass and weakness are classic signs of neuroblastoma due to the tumor originating in the adrenal glands near the kidneys and potentially compressing nearby structures. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (Choice A) are not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Hearing loss and ataxia (Choice B) are more common in conditions affecting the central nervous system rather than neuroblastoma. Headaches and vomiting (Choice C) are nonspecific symptoms and are less commonly linked to neuroblastoma compared to the characteristic abdominal findings.
Question 2 of 9
The patient is immobilized after undergoing hip replacement surgery. Which finding will alert the nurse to monitor for hemorrhage in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, which is low-molecular-weight heparin doses. After hip replacement surgery, patients are at risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility. Heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin are commonly used for prophylaxis against DVT. Monitoring for hemorrhage is crucial when administering anticoagulants. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to monitoring for hemorrhage in this scenario. Thick, tenacious pulmonary secretions (Choice A) may indicate respiratory issues, SCDs (Choice C) help prevent DVT but do not directly relate to hemorrhage monitoring, and elastic stockings (TED hose) (Choice D) are used for DVT prophylaxis but do not alert to hemorrhage.
Question 3 of 9
A client reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's priority should be the client's temperature. A high temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F) indicates a potential infection or inflammation that requires immediate attention. While heart rate and abdominal tenderness are important assessments, the temperature takes precedence as it signals a more urgent issue. Overdue menses, although significant, are not the priority in this scenario when compared to the possibility of an acute infection or inflammatory process.
Question 4 of 9
When conducting an admission assessment, the LPN should ask the client about the use of complementary healing practices. Which statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When considering the use of complementary healing practices, it is important to acknowledge that many of these practices can be safely integrated with conventional treatments to provide holistic care. Choice A is incorrect because complementary healing practices can complement traditional medical approaches rather than interfere with their efficacy. Choice B is incorrect as interactions between conventional medications and folk remedies may vary, but not all interactions lead to adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as conventional medical practices and complementary healing practices can coexist and each offer benefits in healthcare.
Question 5 of 9
A client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the LPN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The LPN should monitor potassium levels closely while the client is taking furosemide (Lasix) due to the medication's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring potassium in this context. Calcium (choice C) and magnesium (choice D) levels are not typically affected by furosemide and are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has MRSA. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I will place the client in a private room.' Placing the client in a private room helps prevent the spread of MRSA, a contact precaution. Choice B is incorrect because visitors should be following standard precautions for MRSA, not just wearing a mask within a specific distance. Choice C is incorrect as the gown should be removed before exiting the client's room to prevent the spread of MRSA. Choice D is incorrect as an N95 respirator mask is not typically required for the care of a client with MRSA; standard precautions are usually sufficient.
Question 7 of 9
The healthcare provider attaches a pulse oximeter to a client's fingers and obtains an oxygen saturation reading of 91%. Which assessment finding most likely contributes to this reading?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Edema, indicated by 2+ edema of fingers and hands, can impair blood flow and peripheral perfusion, leading to reduced oxygen saturation readings on a pulse oximeter. High blood pressure (choice A) would not directly affect oxygen saturation readings. Radial pulse volume (choice C) and capillary refill time (choice D) are more related to assessing circulation rather than contributing significantly to oxygen saturation readings.
Question 8 of 9
When assessing a client's neurologic system, what should the nurse ask the client to close their eyes and identify?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a nurse asks a client to identify a number traced on the palm of the hand with their eyes closed, it assesses the client's ability to perceive touch sensations. This test specifically evaluates the tactile discrimination of the client. The other options do not test the client's ability to identify sensations accurately with eyes closed. Option A tests auditory perception, option C tests vibratory sense, and option D tests object recognition but not tactile discrimination, making them incorrect choices.
Question 9 of 9
The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which symptom should the healthcare provider expect to observe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a hallmark symptom of myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by impaired neuromuscular transmission. This results in muscle weakness, particularly in skeletal muscles that control eye movements, facial expressions, chewing, swallowing, and speaking. Joint pain (Choice B) is not a typical symptom of myasthenia gravis and is more commonly associated with conditions like arthritis. Vision changes (Choice C) may occur in conditions affecting the eyes, but they are not specific to myasthenia gravis. Skin rash (Choice D) is also not a typical manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Therefore, the correct answer is muscle weakness (Choice A).