HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient has been diagnosed with a spinal cord injury and needs to be repositioned using the logrolling technique. Which technique will the healthcare team use for logrolling?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique for logrolling involves at least three to four people to ensure the safety and proper alignment of the patient's spine. Logrolling requires coordinated effort from multiple individuals to prevent twisting or bending of the spine, hence option A is correct. Option B is incorrect as patients with spinal cord injuries should not be instructed to reach for the opposite side rail due to the risk of causing harm. Option C is incorrect as moving the bottom part of the patient's torso first could lead to spinal misalignment. Option D is incorrect as pillows should be used for support and comfort after the patient has been successfully turned, not before.
Question 2 of 9
When transferring a postoperative client from the PACU following abdominal surgery, what action should the nurse take to move the client from the stretcher to the bed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Locking the wheels on both the bed and stretcher is crucial for ensuring stability during the transfer process. This action is essential to prevent unexpected movement of the bed or stretcher, reducing the risk of injury to the client and facilitating a safe transfer. Adjusting the bed to a low position is important for the client's comfort and safety but does not directly address the immediate need for stability during the transfer. Asking the client to assist in the transfer may not be feasible immediately postoperatively, depending on their condition and the type of surgery they underwent. Using a transfer sheet without locking the wheels can introduce potential safety hazards as the bed or stretcher may move during the transfer, undermining the stability needed for a safe and effective transfer.
Question 3 of 9
A client with prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider discusses treatment options. What statement should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Offering to talk later if the client changes their mind respects their current choice and keeps the dialogue open. Choice B is not the best response as it may pressure the client to share concerns. Choice C is incorrect as it imposes a decision on the client. Choice D does not acknowledge the client's feelings in the moment and postpones addressing concerns.
Question 4 of 9
A client is incontinent of loose stool and is reporting a painful perineum. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the client's perineum is the priority nursing action in this situation. By checking the perineum, the nurse can evaluate for skin damage, irritation, infection, or other issues that may be causing the client's pain. This assessment is crucial to determine the appropriate interventions needed to address the client's discomfort and prevent complications. Administering pain medication, cleaning the area with a mild cleanser, or applying a barrier cream are important interventions but should follow the initial assessment of the perineum to ensure comprehensive care and effective management of the client's condition. Prioritizing assessment allows for a targeted and individualized approach to care, enhancing the client's overall well-being.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with stomatitis is receiving oral care education from a nurse. Which instructions will the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient with stomatitis is to avoid commercial mouthwashes. Commercial mouthwashes often contain alcohol and other ingredients that can irritate the already inflamed oral mucosa in patients with stomatitis. Avoiding commercial mouthwashes helps prevent further irritation and discomfort. Choice B is incorrect because normal saline rinses are gentle and can help soothe the oral mucosa in patients with stomatitis. Choice C is incorrect because a soft toothbrush should be used to prevent further irritation or injury to the gums. Choice D is incorrect because an alcohol-based toothpaste can be too harsh and drying for patients with stomatitis.
Question 6 of 9
The LPN is caring for a client who has been placed in restraints. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse to take when caring for a client in restraints is to release the restraints every 2 hours for repositioning. This practice helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and impaired circulation by ensuring adequate blood flow and preventing skin breakdown. Checking the client's circulation every hour (Choice A) is important, but releasing the restraints for repositioning takes precedence to prevent serious complications. While documenting the reason for restraints (Choice B) is essential for legal and documentation purposes, it is not as critical as providing necessary care to the client's physical well-being. Providing range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) is beneficial for maintaining mobility but may not address the immediate risks associated with prolonged restraint use.
Question 7 of 9
At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the aortic valve is the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This area corresponds to the aortic valve area where aortic valve sounds are best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect for auscultating the aortic valve. The fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the mitral valve is best heard, the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the pulmonic valve is best heard, and the fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is where the tricuspid valve is best auscultated.
Question 8 of 9
A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is explaining the use of written consent forms to a newly-licensed healthcare professional. The healthcare professional should ensure that a written consent form has been signed by which of the following clients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Written consent is required for procedures that carry significant risks, such as blood transfusions, to ensure the client's informed consent and understanding of the procedure. In this case, a transfusion of packed red blood cells is an invasive procedure that carries risks, making it essential to have the client's written consent. Choices B, C, and D do not typically require written consent as routine physical examinations, minor surgical procedures without anesthesia, and new medication prescriptions do not carry the same level of risk and complexity as a blood transfusion.