HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that the symptom of acute episodes of asthma is due to which physiological response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm. Acute asthma episodes are primarily caused by inflammation of the airways and bronchospasm, which lead to airway obstruction. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction (Choice B) are part of the physiological responses in asthma but do not directly cause acute episodes. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation (Choice C) are related to asthma triggers and responses but are not the direct causes of acute episodes. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity (Choice D) are consequences of inflammation and bronchospasm but do not explain the physiological response leading to acute asthma episodes.
Question 2 of 9
Assessment findings of a 3-hour-old newborn include: axillary temperature of 97.7°F, heart rate of 140 beats/minute with a soft murmur, and irregular respiratory rate at 42 breaths/min. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to record the findings on the flow sheet. The newborn's axillary temperature, heart rate, and respiratory rate are within normal limits for a 3-hour-old newborn. Therefore, there is no immediate need for intervention or further assessment. Swaddling the infant in a warm blanket, placing a pulse oximeter on the heel, or checking the vital signs in 15 minutes are not necessary actions based on the normal assessment findings presented. These actions could potentially disrupt the newborn or lead to unnecessary interventions when the baby is stable.
Question 3 of 9
A client with rheumatoid arthritis reports a new onset of increasing fatigue. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis reporting increasing fatigue is to assess the client for pallor. Fatigue can be a sign of anemia or other complications; assessing for pallor can help determine if anemia is the cause. Option A is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of fatigue. Option B assumes the cause without further assessment. Option D is important for overall health but assessing for pallor takes precedence to identify immediate issues related to fatigue.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a 6-month-old child. Which injection site is best for the nurse to use?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for IM injections in infants due to their limited muscle mass and safety. Infants do not have well-developed muscle mass, making the vastus lateralis the best option for IM injections. The deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults. Ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are not recommended for infants due to safety concerns, including the risk of damaging the sciatic nerve. Therefore, the correct choice is the vastus lateralis for IM injections in infants.
Question 5 of 9
A client admitted to the intensive care unit with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Frequent reorientation is crucial for clients with neurological impairments from osmotic demyelination to prevent confusion and assist with orientation. It helps maintain a proper sense of time, place, and person, reducing disorientation. Patching one eye (Choice A) is not a priority intervention for osmotic demyelination and does not address the immediate need for reorientation. Range of motion exercises (Choice C) may be important for overall care, but reorientation takes precedence due to its impact on neurological functioning. Evaluating swallow (Choice D) is not the primary intervention needed for osmotic demyelination; it is essential but not the first priority.
Question 6 of 9
What information is most important for the nurse to provide to an adolescent female prescribed azithromycin for lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to provide to an adolescent female prescribed azithromycin for lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia is to use two forms of contraception while taking this drug. Azithromycin can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives, increasing the risk of pregnancy. It is crucial to convey this information to prevent unintended pregnancies. Option A is incorrect as the partner should be screened for chlamydia, not HIV, in this case. Option B is not the most important information to provide as liver dysfunction is a rare side effect of azithromycin. Option C is irrelevant as grapefruit juice does not interact with azithromycin. Therefore, the priority information to convey is the importance of using dual contraception to prevent pregnancy.
Question 7 of 9
A young female adult wanders into the Emergency Department. She is disheveled and confused and states, 'My date must have put something in my drink. He took my car, and I think he raped me. I don't exactly remember, but I know he hurt me.' How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the patient to share more about what she remembers. This approach helps gather crucial information, supports the patient in a non-judgmental manner, and allows the nurse to provide appropriate care. Choice A has been revised to be more sensitive by asking about resistance when feeling uncomfortable rather than placing blame. Choice B has been adjusted to show empathy and request more details without questioning the patient's account. Choice C, although empathetic, does not address the immediate need to collect information and support the patient.
Question 8 of 9
Which client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vomiting can lead to significant loss of magnesium, causing hypomagnesemia. In this scenario, the young adult client with intractable vomiting from food poisoning is at higher risk of developing hypomagnesemia due to the loss of magnesium through vomiting. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to present with hypomagnesemia. Hyperparathyroidism (B) is associated with hypercalcemia, renal failure (C) can lead to hypermagnesemia, and overconsumption of simple carbohydrates (D) is not directly linked to magnesium imbalances.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is demonstrating wound care to a client following abdominal surgery. In what order should the nurse teach the technique?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order ensures proper aseptic technique and wound care to prevent infection. The first step is to remove the old dressing using clean gloves to prevent contamination. Discarding the gloves with the old dressing helps maintain cleanliness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because cleaning the wound, applying a new dressing, and securing it should come after removing the old dressing to maintain asepsis and prevent infection.