The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder?

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HESI Pediatrics Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Positive fibrin split products indicate disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a condition characterized by the widespread formation of blood clots throughout the body. In DIC, clotting factors are consumed, leading to increased fibrin split products. A shortened prothrombin time (Choice A) is not typically seen in DIC as it indicates faster blood clotting, which is not consistent with the pathophysiology of DIC. An increased fibrinogen level (Choice B) is also not a characteristic finding in DIC, as fibrinogen levels may be decreased due to consumption in the formation of clots. Increased platelets (Choice D) are not typically observed in DIC; instead, thrombocytopenia (decreased platelet count) is more common due to their consumption in clot formation.

Question 2 of 9

A child is being assessed for suspected appendicitis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare professional likely to observe?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The appendix is typically located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is commonly associated with appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because left lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and epigastric pain are not typical manifestations of appendicitis. Left lower quadrant pain is not associated with appendicitis since the appendix is situated in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness is more commonly linked with peritonitis rather than appendicitis. Epigastric pain is not a typical presentation of appendicitis as the pain is usually localized to the right lower quadrant.

Question 3 of 9

What intervention best meets a major developmental need of a newborn in the immediate postoperative period?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is giving a pacifier to the newborn. Sucking is a natural reflex and a source of comfort for newborns, especially postoperatively. A pacifier can help meet their developmental needs by providing soothing comfort. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the major developmental need related to the newborn's comfort and reflexes postoperatively. Putting a mobile over the crib, providing a cuddly toy, or warming formula, although potentially beneficial in other contexts, do not specifically target the developmental need of sucking for comfort. Offering a pacifier is a safe and effective way to address this developmental need in newborns.

Question 4 of 9

A school nurse is teaching parents of school-age children about the importance of immunizations for childhood communicable diseases. What preventable disease may cause the complication of encephalitis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Varicella (chickenpox), choice A. Varicella can lead to the complication of encephalitis, which is the inflammation of the brain. Scarlet fever (choice B) is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria and does not typically lead to encephalitis. Poliomyelitis (choice C) is a viral infection that affects the nervous system but does not directly cause encephalitis. Whooping cough (choice D), also known as pertussis, primarily affects the respiratory system and does not commonly result in encephalitis.

Question 5 of 9

What is the most common cause of seizures in children?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Seizures in children most often result from a temperature greater than 102°F, known as febrile seizures. Febrile seizures are commonly triggered by a rapid increase in body temperature due to infections or other causes. Choice A is incorrect as febrile seizures are not necessarily caused by the abrupt rise in body temperature alone. Choice B is incorrect as inflammatory processes in the brain may lead to other types of seizures but are not the most common cause in children. Choice D is incorrect as not all seizures in children are due to life-threatening infections.

Question 6 of 9

A child with suspected Kawasaki disease is being assessed. What clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Peeling skin on the hands and feet is a characteristic clinical manifestation of Kawasaki disease, known as desquamation. This occurs during the convalescent phase of the illness, typically around 2-3 weeks after the onset of symptoms. While a generalized rash can be present in Kawasaki disease, peeling skin on the hands and feet is a more specific and distinctive feature. High fever is also a common symptom of Kawasaki disease, usually lasting for at least 5 days, while a low-grade fever is not typically associated with this condition. Therefore, the nurse is more likely to observe peeling skin on the hands and feet in a child suspected of having Kawasaki disease, making option B the correct choice.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is reviewing the immunization schedule of an 11-month-old infant. What immunizations does the nurse expect the infant to have previously received?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio. By 11 months of age, infants should have received doses of these vaccines as part of the immunization schedule. Choice A is incorrect because measles is usually given later in the schedule. Choice C is incorrect as rubella is usually given as part of the MMR vaccine, not individually, and tuberculosis is not routinely given as a vaccine in early infancy. Choice D is incorrect because mumps is not part of the recommended vaccines at 11 months of age.

Question 8 of 9

During a primary survey of a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, what action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When managing a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, the priority action during the primary survey is to assess for a patent airway. This step is crucial as burns in this region can lead to airway compromise, potentially causing rapid deterioration in the child's condition. Checking for a patent airway ensures that the child can breathe adequately, which is essential for oxygenation and ventilation. Inspecting the child's skin color (Choice A) is an important assessment but should follow ensuring a patent airway. Observing for symmetric breathing (Choice C) is relevant, but the immediate focus should be on securing the airway. Palpating the child's pulse (Choice D) is also a vital assessment, but in this scenario, the priority is to assess and maintain a clear airway to support respiratory function and oxygen delivery.

Question 9 of 9

The school nurse is presenting a class to a group of students about common overuse disorders. Which disorder would the school nurse include?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osgood-Schlatter disease. This condition is a common overuse injury that affects the knee. Osgood-Schlatter disease typically occurs in children and adolescents who are involved in activities that require frequent running, jumping, and kicking. It is characterized by pain, swelling, and tenderness at the tibial tuberosity, where the patellar tendon inserts into the tibia. Choice A, Dislocated radial head, is not an overuse disorder but rather a form of elbow injury where the head of the radius bone is displaced from its normal position. Choice B, Transient synovitis of the hip, is a self-limiting condition that causes hip pain and limping in children. It is not typically considered an overuse disorder. Choice D, Scoliosis, is a condition characterized by an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. While it may be related to certain activities or postures, it is not primarily classified as an overuse disorder.

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