HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is preparing to administer phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) to a client on the psychiatric unit. Which complaint related to administration of this drug should the nurse expect this client to make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect of MAO inhibitors like phenelzine due to their anticholinergic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as indigestion, diarrhea, and pink urine are not commonly associated side effects of phenelzine.
Question 2 of 9
An LPN/LVN is caring for a suicidal client. The appropriate nursing intervention in dealing with this client is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a suicidal client, providing authority, taking action, and encouraging the client's participation in their care are essential. Choice A is incorrect as it may not be sufficient for the critical situation of a suicidal client. Choice B, while offering hope, may not address the immediate risk of harm. Choice C's attitude of detachment and confrontation can be counterproductive in establishing trust and rapport with the client. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to provide authority, take action to ensure safety, and involve the client in the care process.
Question 3 of 9
When planning care for a client with anorexia nervosa, which goal should be prioritized?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because achieving normal electrolyte balance is critical in clients with anorexia nervosa. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and organ failure. While establishing normal eating patterns (choice A) and verbalizing feelings about food and weight (choice B) are important aspects of treatment, addressing electrolyte balance takes precedence due to the immediate risks associated with imbalances. Additionally, setting a weight gain goal of 2 pounds per week (choice C) may not be appropriate initially as rapid refeeding can also lead to electrolyte imbalances and other complications.
Question 4 of 9
A client with panic disorder is prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). What is the most important information for the nurse to provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. SSRIs like sertraline may take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to inform the client to be patient with the treatment. Choice A is not the most crucial information regarding sertraline. Choice C is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is important but not as crucial as informing about the delayed onset of action.
Question 5 of 9
An anxious client expressing a fear of people and open places is admitted to the psychiatric unit. What is the most effective way for the nurse to assist this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most effective way to assist a client with a fear of people and open places is through gradual desensitization by controlled exposure to the situation which is feared (D). This method helps the client confront their fears in a safe and supportive manner, allowing them to gradually build confidence and reduce anxiety. Planning an outing within the second week of admission (A) may be too soon and overwhelming for the client. Distracting the client whenever they express discomfort (B) does not address the underlying issue and may promote denial. Confronting the client's fears and discussing possible causes (C) could be too aggressive initially and may not be well-tolerated by the client.
Question 6 of 9
The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The priority is to manage the client's medication adherence to prevent escalation of manic behavior. Inflated self-esteem is the highest priority as it indicates the client's potential for harmful behaviors due to lack of medication compliance. While excessive work activity and decreased need for sleep are characteristics of mania, they are not as immediately concerning as the risk of harm related to inflated self-esteem.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with major depressive disorder who is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to set realistic expectations for the client. Choice A is incorrect as dizziness is a common side effect but not the most important teaching point. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-rich foods is more relevant for MAOIs. Choice D is incorrect as fluoxetine should be taken consistently, not only when the client feels depressed, to maintain therapeutic blood levels.
Question 8 of 9
A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. Which activity is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to suggest to the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, individuals may experience heightened levels of energy and agitation. Engaging in activities that are overly stimulating, such as playing basketball with others (choice A) or taking a walk in a garden (choice B), can exacerbate these symptoms. Writing in a journal (choice D) may also be too stimulating and may not provide the necessary distraction. Working on a puzzle in a quiet room (choice C) can offer a calming and focused activity that helps reduce anxiety and channel excess energy into a structured task, making it the most appropriate choice for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder.
Question 9 of 9
A female client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for two weeks suddenly becomes more energetic and talkative. What action should the RN take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sudden increase in energy and talkativeness in a client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for a short period may indicate an increased risk of suicide due to the potential shift from profound sadness to motivation to act. The first action the RN should take is to monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior. Encouraging participation in group activities or praising the client for the apparent improvement may overlook the potential risk of suicidal behavior. While discussing the client's progress with the healthcare provider is important, the immediate concern is to ensure the client's safety by closely monitoring for any signs of suicidal ideation or behavior.