The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider?

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HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 60 beats per minute is a contraindication for administering digoxin, as it can lead to bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common adverse effect associated with digoxin toxicity. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL are within normal limits and would not warrant withholding the medication or contacting the healthcare provider in this context. Therefore, a heart rate of 55 beats per minute would prompt the nurse to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.

Question 2 of 9

A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client is short of breath and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the LPN take first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position should be the first action taken by the LPN. This position helps improve oxygenation by maximizing lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing positioning may not fully optimize oxygen delivery. Notifying the healthcare provider should come after immediate interventions. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is beneficial but should follow the initial positioning to further assist the client in managing their breathing difficulty.

Question 3 of 9

When assisting an older adult client with dysphagia following a CVA during mealtime, what should the nurse prioritize?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is sitting upright while eating. This position helps prevent aspiration and facilitates swallowing. Offering tart or sour foods (Choice A) may not be suitable for someone with dysphagia as they can be difficult to swallow and may increase the risk of aspiration. Providing soft and easily swallowable foods (Choice C) is crucial for individuals with swallowing difficulties. While giving thickened liquids (Choice D) is a common intervention for dysphagia, the priority during mealtime should be ensuring the client's proper positioning to support safe swallowing and prevent aspiration.

Question 4 of 9

In an emergency situation, the charge nurse on the night shift at an urgent care center has to deal with admitting clients of higher acuity than usual due to a large fire in the area. Which style of leadership and decision-making would be best in this circumstance?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation such as dealing with patients of higher acuity due to a large fire, it is crucial for the charge nurse to assume a decision-making role. This style of leadership allows for quick and efficient decision-making to manage the increased acuity of patients effectively. Seeking input from staff (Choice B) may delay critical decisions needed in emergencies. Using a non-directive approach (Choice C) or shared decision-making with others (Choice D) may not be suitable in urgent situations where immediate actions are required to address the high acuity of patients.

Question 5 of 9

When is a depressed client at highest risk for attempting suicide?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Depressed clients are at the highest risk of attempting suicide 7 to 14 days after starting antidepressant medication and psychotherapy. During this time, they may start to regain energy but still feel hopeless, which can increase the risk of suicidal ideation and behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because immediate post-admission, after an angry outburst with family, or when removed from a security room are not specific periods known to be associated with the highest risk of suicide in depressed clients.

Question 6 of 9

A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

Question 7 of 9

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) IV 100 mL over 15 min. How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To administer 100 mL over 15 min, the IV pump should be set to deliver 400 mL/hr. This calculation is based on the concept that if 100 mL is given in 15 minutes, to find out how many milliliters are given in an hour, you would multiply by 4 (since 15 minutes is a quarter of an hour). Therefore, 100 mL x 4 = 400 mL per hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate required to administer 100 mL over 15 minutes.

Question 8 of 9

The nurse is planning a meal plan that would provide the most iron for a child with anemia. Which dinner menu would be best?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ground beef, lima beans, and raisins are rich sources of iron, making this meal plan the most suitable for a child with anemia. Ground beef is a high-iron meat, while lima beans and raisins are also excellent sources of iron. Fish sticks, french fries, banana, and cookies in option A lack sufficient iron content compared to the options in B. Chicken nuggets, macaroni, and peas in option C are not as iron-rich as the ground beef, lima beans, and raisins in option B. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich with apple slices in option D also fall short in providing enough iron when compared to the iron-rich components of option B.

Question 9 of 9

When assessing bowel sounds, what action should a healthcare professional take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When assessing bowel sounds, it is crucial to listen before performing any palpation as palpation can alter bowel sounds. The correct technique involves placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope over each quadrant of the abdomen to listen for bowel sounds. Auscultating for at least 5 minutes is recommended to accurately determine the presence or absence of bowel sounds. Asking the client to cough is not necessary for assessing bowel sounds and may not provide relevant information. Therefore, option C is the correct choice as it follows the appropriate procedure for assessing bowel sounds.

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