The nurse is leading a 'current events group' with chronic psychiatric clients. One group member states, 'Clara Barton was my nurse during my last hospitalization. She was a very mean nurse and wasn't nice to me.' Which response would be best for the nurse to make?

Questions 52

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Mental Health HESI 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse is leading a 'current events group' with chronic psychiatric clients. One group member states, 'Clara Barton was my nurse during my last hospitalization. She was a very mean nurse and wasn't nice to me.' Which response would be best for the nurse to make?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: (D) presents the reality of the situation in relation to American culture. The fact that Clara Barton was a nurse during the Civil War should be addressed on an individual basis. Since this is group therapy, the nurse would be illustrating the concept of universality. (A) is likely to promote defensiveness. (B and C) would support the delusion. Therefore, the most appropriate response is (D) as it provides factual information that can redirect the conversation in a constructive manner.

Question 2 of 9

An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

Question 3 of 9

A LVN/LPN is caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. The nurse is monitoring the behavior of the client and understands that a client with anorexia nervosa manages anxiety by:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Clients with anorexia nervosa often manage anxiety by adhering strictly to rules and regulations as a way to maintain control. Choice A is incorrect because engaging in immoral acts is not a common coping mechanism for clients with anorexia nervosa. Choice B is incorrect as self-approval is not typically the primary way clients with anorexia nervosa manage anxiety. Choice D is incorrect because while clients with anorexia nervosa may have a need to make the right decision, it is not the primary way they manage their anxiety.

Question 4 of 9

A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing a flashback. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The priority action is to help the client focus on the present (B), which can reduce the intensity of the flashback. Encouraging discussion of the trauma (A) should be done when the client is not actively experiencing a flashback. While medication (C) may be necessary, it is not the first priority in this situation. Leaving the client alone (D) is not appropriate as they need support to manage the flashback.

Question 5 of 9

A female client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most therapeutic response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the client's experience while gently presenting reality can help build trust and provide reassurance without reinforcing the hallucination.

Question 6 of 9

A client with anorexia nervosa is being treated in an inpatient unit. Which intervention is a priority for the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring the client's weight daily is a priority intervention for a nurse caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. Weight monitoring is crucial in assessing the client's progress and adjusting treatment as necessary to prevent complications such as refeeding syndrome, electrolyte imbalances, and cardiac issues. Encouraging exercise (Choice A) can exacerbate the client's unhealthy relationship with food and body image. Providing liquid supplements (Choice B) is important but may not be the priority over monitoring weight. Allowing the client to choose their own meals (Choice C) may not be suitable initially as they may make unhealthy choices or avoid meals altogether.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client with depression who is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). The client reports difficulty sleeping. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with difficulty sleeping due to depression and prescribed fluoxetine is to suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime. This intervention can promote relaxation and help establish a bedtime routine, potentially improving sleep quality. Encouraging short naps during the day (Choice A) may disrupt the client's nighttime sleep schedule. Recommending exercise immediately before bedtime (Choice C) can have a stimulating effect, making it harder for the client to fall asleep. Advising the client to take a sleep aid nightly (Choice D) should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider due to potential interactions with fluoxetine.

Question 8 of 9

A moderately depressed client who was hospitalized 2 days ago suddenly begins smiling and reporting that the crisis is over. The client says to a nurse, 'I'm finally cured.' The LPN/LVN interprets this behavior as a cue to modify the treatment plan by:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A sudden improvement in mood and declaring being cured can be warning signs of a decision to attempt suicide. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to increase the level of suicide precautions to ensure the safety of the client. This can involve closer monitoring and restriction of items that could be harmful. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the potential risk of suicide that may be present with the sudden change in behavior.

Question 9 of 9

A female client with obsessive compulsive personality disorder is admitted to the hospital for a cardiac catheterization. The afternoon before the procedure, the client begins to keep detailed notes of the nursing care she is receiving and reports her findings to the RN at bedtime. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to express her feelings can help address underlying anxieties and may reduce the need for obsessive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because it may come across as confrontational and could escalate the situation. Choice B is not the best initial action as it focuses on the behavior rather than the client's emotions. Choice C is premature without first addressing the client's emotional needs.

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