HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is discussing dietary intake with an adolescent who has acne. The most appropriate statement for the nurse is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate advice for an adolescent with acne is to eat a balanced diet for their age. A balanced diet that includes a variety of nutrients is essential for overall health, including skin health. While protein and Vitamin A are important for skin health, focusing solely on increasing these nutrients may not address the overall dietary needs. Similarly, solely decreasing fatty foods or avoiding caffeine may not be the most effective advice for managing acne. Therefore, the best advice is to promote a balanced diet tailored to the adolescent's age.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prolonged expiratory phase. In COPD, there is airflow obstruction leading to difficulty in exhaling air. This results in a prolonged expiratory phase. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Decreased anteroposterior diameter is associated with conditions like barrel chest in emphysema, not COPD. Hyperresonance on percussion is typical in conditions like emphysema, not necessarily in COPD. Increased breath sounds are not a typical finding in COPD; instead, diminished breath sounds may be present due to air trapping.
Question 4 of 5
A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.