HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is discussing dietary intake with an adolescent who has acne. The most appropriate statement for the nurse is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate advice for an adolescent with acne is to eat a balanced diet for their age. A balanced diet that includes a variety of nutrients is essential for overall health, including skin health. While protein and Vitamin A are important for skin health, focusing solely on increasing these nutrients may not address the overall dietary needs. Similarly, solely decreasing fatty foods or avoiding caffeine may not be the most effective advice for managing acne. Therefore, the best advice is to promote a balanced diet tailored to the adolescent's age.
Question 2 of 9
The increasing number of people who must learn to live with chronic illness in the community implies the need for the PHN to plan and implement a program on:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: health education. Health education is crucial for individuals dealing with chronic illnesses as it helps them learn how to manage their conditions effectively. Communicable disease control (choice A) focuses on preventing the spread of infectious diseases, which is not directly related to managing chronic conditions. Child survival (choice C) pertains to initiatives aimed at reducing child mortality rates, which is not directly related to addressing chronic illnesses. Environmental education (choice D) involves raising awareness about environmental issues, which is also not directly related to helping individuals live with chronic illnesses.
Question 3 of 9
When admitting a client with Parkinson's disease to the home healthcare service, which nursing diagnosis should have priority in planning care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Impaired physical mobility related to muscle rigidity and weakness.' For a client with Parkinson's disease, impaired physical mobility is a priority nursing diagnosis because of the characteristic motor symptoms such as muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability. Addressing impaired physical mobility is crucial to enhance the client's quality of life. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority nursing diagnoses for a client with Parkinson's disease. Ineffective coping (Choice B) and fear of seizures (Choice D) may be concerns but are not the priority. Ineffective breathing pattern (Choice C) is not typically associated with Parkinson's disease.
Question 4 of 9
The home health nursing director is conducting an educational program for registered nurses and practical nurses about Medicare reimbursement. To obtain payment for Medicare services, what must be included in the client's record?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Documentation of skilled care services is required for Medicare reimbursement. Medicare reimbursement is based on the provision of skilled care services, not on prescriptions or preventative healthcare services. Including a copy of the client's health history and social security card is not a requirement for Medicare reimbursement.
Question 5 of 9
The healthcare professional is planning a community health fair. Which of the following topics should be given the highest priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In planning a community health fair, the highest priority should be given to blood pressure screening. This is because hypertension is a common and serious health issue that often goes undetected. Identifying individuals with high blood pressure early can lead to timely interventions and management, potentially preventing severe complications such as heart disease or stroke. While topics like diabetes education, smoking cessation, and nutrition are important, addressing blood pressure screening first aligns with the goal of early detection and prevention of a prevalent health concern.
Question 6 of 9
When the nurse identifies what appears to be ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor of a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction, the first action the nurse should perform is to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when identifying what appears to be ventricular tachycardia in a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction is to assess the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. This step is crucial to determine the client's stability and the need for immediate intervention. Beginning cardiopulmonary resuscitation or preparing for immediate defibrillation without first assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation could delay potentially life-saving interventions. Notifying the 'Code' team and healthcare provider should come after ensuring the client's immediate needs are addressed.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is planning care for a client with increased intracranial pressure. The best position for this client is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Semi-Fowler's. This position helps to reduce intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage from the head while maintaining adequate oxygenation. Option A, Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves placing the patient with the head lower than the body, which can increase intracranial pressure. Option B, Prone position, is also incorrect as it involves lying on the stomach, which can further elevate intracranial pressure. Option D, Side-lying with head flat, does not provide the same benefits as the Semi-Fowler's position in terms of promoting venous drainage and maintaining oxygenation in a client with increased intracranial pressure.
Question 8 of 9
A client is scheduled to have a blood test for cholesterol and triglycerides the next day. The nurse would tell the client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fasting for at least 12 hours is necessary before a cholesterol and triglyceride test to ensure accurate results by avoiding fluctuations that can occur after eating. Choice A is incorrect because a fat-free diet is not required; fasting is. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests having the test right after eating, which can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to stay at the laboratory for 2 blood samples unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider.
Question 9 of 9
A child and his family were exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis about 2 months ago. To confirm the presence or absence of an infection, it is most important for all family members to have a
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermal test is the standard screening method for detecting tuberculosis infection. It helps identify individuals who have been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A chest x-ray (Choice A) is used to assess the extent of active disease, not for screening purposes. Blood culture (Choice B) is not typically used for tuberculosis screening. Sputum culture (Choice C) is used to confirm active tuberculosis in symptomatic individuals, not for initial screening purposes.