HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who is reluctant to ambulate. What strategy should the nurse use to encourage the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct strategy for the nurse to encourage the postoperative client to ambulate is to explain the benefits of ambulation for recovery. Educating the client on how ambulation aids in preventing complications and promotes faster recovery can motivate their participation. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for the client to request to walk may lead to delays in mobilization. Choice C is incorrect as it may induce unnecessary fear in the client. Choice D is incorrect as offering pain medication before walking does not address the client's reluctance to ambulate.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate as the priority intervention in a client experiencing hypoglycemia. This helps quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is not the priority in an acute hypoglycemic episode where immediate action is needed. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the client is unable to take anything by mouth.
Question 4 of 5
After delivering a healthy newborn, a client is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage. What initial intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for postpartum hemorrhage is to perform a uterine massage. This action helps the uterus contract, controlling bleeding. Administering IV fluids may be necessary but is not the initial intervention. Monitoring the newborn's vital signs is important but not the priority when managing postpartum hemorrhage. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating immediate interventions to address the hemorrhage.
Question 5 of 5
During a health screening, a client's blood pressure reads 160/100 mm Hg. What should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A follow-up with a healthcare provider is necessary to assess and manage the newly identified hypertension. While dietary changes and exercise are important for managing high blood pressure, immediate lifestyle modifications without further evaluation by a healthcare provider may not be safe or effective. Option A is the most appropriate initial step to ensure proper assessment and management of the client's blood pressure. Therefore, choices B and C are incorrect in this scenario. Option D is also incorrect because not all options should be implemented without proper medical guidance.