HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1 Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which position should the nurse avoid?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positioning the client in the prone position. Placing the client in the prone position should be avoided in a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as it can further raise ICP. The prone position can hinder venous return and increase pressure within the cranial vault, potentially worsening the client's condition. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees helps promote venous drainage and reduce ICP. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position can also assist in reducing ICP by optimizing cerebral perfusion. Elevating the client's legs can help improve venous return and maintain adequate cerebral blood flow, making it a suitable positioning intervention for managing increased ICP.
Question 2 of 9
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with Pneumonia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention to prevent complications associated with pneumonia is to encourage mobilization and ambulation. These activities help prevent complications such as atelectasis by promoting lung expansion. Encouraging energy conservation with complete bed rest (Choice B) is not ideal as it can lead to complications like muscle weakness and decreased lung expansion. Providing humidified oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice C) is important in pneumonia treatment but does not directly prevent complications associated with pneumonia itself. Restricting oral (PO) and intravenous fluids (Choice D) is not recommended as adequate hydration is crucial for pneumonia patients to maintain respiratory function and overall health.
Question 3 of 9
The client is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which intervention is most effective in promoting airway clearance?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most effective intervention in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increasing fluid intake helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy may be beneficial but is not the first-line intervention for promoting airway clearance in pneumonia. Providing humidified oxygen can improve oxygenation but does not directly address airway clearance.
Question 4 of 9
A client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged home. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction for a client with tuberculosis (TB) is to take all prescribed medications as directed. This is crucial to prevent the development of drug-resistant TB. While avoiding close contact with others until treatment is complete (Choice A) is important to prevent the spread of TB, ensuring the client completes the prescribed medication regimen is the priority. Scheduling a follow-up appointment (Choice C) is important for monitoring but not as critical as medication adherence. Wearing a mask in public places (Choice D) can help reduce the spread of TB but is not as essential as taking medications as prescribed.
Question 5 of 9
The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss as a side effect. By increasing potassium-rich foods, the client can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy. Choice B is incorrect because while limiting sodium intake is generally advisable for heart failure, it is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice C is incorrect because fluid intake should be monitored and adjusted based on the individual's condition, but setting a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to increased urination during the night.
Question 6 of 9
A client complains of pain at the IV site. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the site is warm, red, and swollen. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Phlebitis. Phlebitis is the inflammation of a vein, often caused by irritation from an IV catheter, resulting in warmth, redness, and swelling at the site. Infiltration (choice B) refers to the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissues, causing swelling and pallor, not redness and warmth like in the scenario described. An allergic reaction (choice C) would present with itching, hives, or anaphylaxis, rather than localized warmth, redness, and swelling. Fluid overload (choice D) typically manifests as generalized edema, shortness of breath, and weight gain, not localized symptoms at the IV site.
Question 7 of 9
The client has chronic renal failure. What dietary modification is most important for this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial in chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia, which can lead to cardiac complications. Excessive protein intake can increase the workload on the kidneys and may result in the accumulation of uremic toxins. Increasing sodium intake is generally discouraged in chronic renal failure due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. Encouraging dairy products may not be suitable for all clients with chronic renal failure, as they are a significant source of phosphorus, which needs to be limited in renal failure to prevent mineral imbalances.
Question 8 of 9
The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just undergone abdominal surgery. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain may indicate complications such as peritonitis, bowel perforation, or internal bleeding. These conditions are serious and require immediate medical attention to prevent further complications or deterioration. Absence of bowel sounds, mild abdominal distention, and drainage of serosanguineous fluid are common findings after abdominal surgery and may not necessarily indicate an emergency situation requiring immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Severe abdominal pain post-surgery should always be reported promptly as it could signify a life-threatening situation that needs urgent evaluation and intervention.
Question 9 of 9
Following an open reduction of the tibia, the nurse notes fresh bleeding on the client's cast. What intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct intervention is to outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to monitor for changes in bleeding. This approach helps in assessing the extent and progression of the bleeding. Option A is incorrect because assessing hemoglobin levels would not provide immediate information on the ongoing bleeding. Option B is premature without first monitoring the bleeding site. Option D is incorrect because although some postoperative bleeding can be expected, fresh bleeding on the cast warrants immediate monitoring and evaluation.