HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who has been prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What is the most important teaching point?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately.' Clients prescribed SSRIs should be educated to report any thoughts of self-harm promptly, as these medications can initially increase suicidal ideation. Choice A is incorrect because SSRIs are usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect as it takes several weeks for SSRIs to reach their full effectiveness. Choice C is irrelevant to SSRI therapy.
Question 2 of 5
What is the homeostatic cellular transport mechanism that moves water from a hypotonic to a hypertonic fluid space?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osmosis. Osmosis is the homeostatic cellular transport mechanism that moves water from a hypotonic to a hypertonic fluid space to maintain cellular balance. In osmosis, water moves across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration (hypotonic) to an area of high solute concentration (hypertonic). This process helps regulate the water content inside cells. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Filtration involves the movement of solutes and solvents through a membrane due to a pressure difference, diffusion is the movement of solutes from an area of high concentration to low concentration, and active transport requires energy to move substances against their concentration gradient.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed antibiotics. What should the nurse inform the client about antibiotic therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to fully eradicate the infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Informing the client about the importance of finishing the prescribed course helps in ensuring the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of recurrence. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics do not generally interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because drowsiness is not a common side effect of antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect because while some antibiotics may need to be taken with meals, it is not a universal rule for all antibiotics.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is monitoring a client's intravenous infusion and observes that the venipuncture site is cool to the touch, swollen, and the infusion rate is slower than the prescribed rate. What is the most likely cause of this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An infiltrated IV occurs when fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing coolness, swelling, and a slow infusion rate. Choice A is incorrect because a rapid solution rate does not typically cause these specific symptoms. Choice B, phlebitis, presents with redness, warmth, and tenderness along the vein, not coolness. Choice C, infection, usually manifests with redness, warmth, and possibly purulent drainage, not coolness and swelling.
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