HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
A client is being treated for paranoid schizophrenia. When the client became loud and boisterous, the nurse immediately placed him in seclusion as a precautionary measure. The client willingly complied. The nurse's action:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placing a client in seclusion without proper justification and documentation can lead to charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint, regardless of the client's compliance. This legal issue arises from the potential violation of the client's rights and must be avoided. Choice B is incorrect as the situation does not involve assault and battery. Choice C is incorrect as past violence alone does not justify seclusion without immediate risk. Choice D is incorrect as seclusion should be used based on individual risk and necessity, not solely for maintaining the therapeutic milieu.
Question 3 of 9
Which statement by the nurse indicates culturally responsive care for a client following Islamic practices?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Asking the client if they want to schedule prayer times during the day demonstrates respect and consideration for Islamic practices. Providing halal options (choice A) is important for dietary requirements in Islam, but it may not address the client's spiritual needs. Avoiding discussing care in front of the client's family (choice C) is not directly linked to Islamic practices and may not necessarily enhance cultural responsiveness. Offering daily communion (choice D) is associated with Christian religious practices, not Islamic practices, and may not meet the client's religious needs.
Question 4 of 9
While auscultating a client's abdomen, a nurse hears a blowing sound over the aorta. The nurse should identify this sound as which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bruit. A bruit is a blowing sound indicating turbulent blood flow, often heard over the aorta. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A gallop is a cardiac sound resembling the sound of a galloping horse. A thrill is a vibration felt on palpation, and a murmur is a swooshing or whooshing sound heard during auscultation of the heart or blood vessels. In this scenario, the blowing sound over the aorta specifically indicates a bruit, which signifies turbulent blood flow and should be further assessed by the healthcare provider.
Question 5 of 9
A client is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider about reducing the adverse effects of immobility. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because performing ankle and knee exercises every hour helps prevent contractures and other adverse effects of immobility. Contractures are a common complication of immobility, and range of motion (ROM) exercises can help maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Holding the breath when rising from a sitting position can increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension, not reduce adverse effects of immobility. Removing antiembolic stockings while in bed can compromise their effectiveness in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is not a measure to reduce immobility-related complications. Having a partner help change positions every 4 hours may not be frequent enough to prevent immobility-related complications effectively; changing positions more frequently is usually recommended to prevent issues like pressure ulcers and muscle stiffness.
Question 6 of 9
A client appears upset about the IV catheter insertion but does not communicate it to the nurse after being informed about the prescribed IV fluids. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate nursing response in this situation is to ask the client if there are any concerns about the procedure. By doing so, the nurse acknowledges the client's distress and opens up a dialogue to address any anxieties or misconceptions. Option A is incorrect as ignoring the client's discomfort can lead to increased anxiety and potential harm. Option B is not ideal as reassuring the client without addressing specific concerns may not alleviate the client's distress. Option D is incorrect because proceeding with the procedure without addressing the client's unspoken concerns can further escalate the client's distress.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with dyspnea and a productive cough. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Auscultating lung sounds is crucial for assessing the extent of congestion in a client with CHF. The presence of crackles or wheezing can indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of CHF. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important to assess renal function but is not the priority in this situation. While assessing the apical pulse (Choice C) and checking blood pressure (Choice D) are important in managing CHF, they do not provide immediate information about the respiratory status and congestion level in the lungs, making auscultating lung sounds the most critical assessment.
Question 8 of 9
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.
Question 9 of 9
Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.