Questions 9

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old male client who is beginning to form a decubitus ulcer at the coccyx. Which intervention will be most helpful in preventing further development of the decubitus ulcer?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to eat foods high in protein is crucial in preventing further development of decubitus ulcers as high protein foods support tissue repair and skin integrity. Adequate protein intake is essential for wound healing. Assessing the client for daily range of motion exercises is important for preventing complications related to immobility, but it may not directly address the prevention of decubitus ulcers. Teaching the family how to perform sterile wound care is significant for wound management but may not be the most effective intervention to prevent further development of decubitus ulcers. Ensuring IV fluids are administered as prescribed is essential for maintaining hydration status but is not the most relevant intervention for preventing decubitus ulcers.

Question 2 of 5

A client is diagnosed with Angina Pectoris. Which factor in the client's history is likely related to the anginal pain?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a major risk factor for angina and other cardiovascular diseases due to its impact on blood vessels. Choice B, 'Drinks two beers daily,' is not directly associated with angina pectoris. While excessive alcohol consumption can contribute to heart problems, it is not a primary risk factor for angina. Choice C, 'Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun,' is not typically related to angina pectoris. Sun exposure is more closely linked to skin-related conditions. Choice D, 'Eats while lying in bed,' is also not a common risk factor for angina. While certain eating habits can impact heart health, this specific behavior is not directly associated with angina pectoris.

Question 3 of 5

A client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide is to monitor pulse rate daily before taking the medication. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, so it is crucial to assess the pulse rate before administering the medication. This practice helps ensure that the heart rate is not too low for the safe use of digoxin. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take digoxin with a high-fiber meal. Choice C is also incorrect because there is no need to avoid dairy products while on digoxin. Choice D is incorrect since blurred vision is not a common side effect of digoxin; hence, it is not the most critical instruction to provide.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which symptom should the nurse expect to find?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a characteristic symptom of left-sided heart failure. In this condition, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood forward causes blood to back up into the lungs, leading to fluid accumulation. This fluid accumulation results in pulmonary congestion, manifesting as shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the extremities. Jugular vein distention (choice B) is a sign of increased central venous pressure and is more indicative of right-sided heart failure. Weight gain (choice D) can be a general symptom of heart failure due to fluid retention, but shortness of breath is specifically related to left-sided heart failure.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.

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