HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium level (choice A) is not typically affected by furosemide. Calcium level (choice C) and chloride level (choice D) are also not the primary focus of monitoring when a client is on furosemide for heart failure.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes about foot care. Which instruction is most important to prevent complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inspect feet daily for cuts or sores. Daily foot inspection is crucial for clients with diabetes to detect early signs of injury or infection. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice A) can lead to skin maceration, making the skin more susceptible to breakdown. Applying moisturizer between the toes (choice B) can increase moisture and the risk of fungal infections. While wearing cotton socks (choice C) is beneficial for diabetic foot care, it is not as crucial as daily foot inspections to prevent complications.
Question 3 of 9
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site is the preferred location for this injection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults due to its muscle mass and lower risk of nerve injury. The deltoid muscle is more commonly used for vaccines in adults, the vastus lateralis muscle is preferred in infants and young children, and the dorsogluteal muscle is associated with a higher risk of nerve injury and is no longer recommended for intramuscular injections.
Question 4 of 9
The client is being educated by the nurse about the side effects of prednisone. Which side effect should the client be instructed to report immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever or sore throat. These symptoms should be reported immediately as they could indicate an infection, which can be serious in clients taking prednisone due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choices A and B are common side effects of prednisone but are not typically considered urgent. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is a known side effect of prednisone but is not an immediate concern compared to the potential of an infection signaled by fever or sore throat.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old male client who is beginning to form a decubitus ulcer at the coccyx. Which intervention will be most helpful in preventing further development of the decubitus ulcer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to eat foods high in protein is crucial in preventing further development of decubitus ulcers as high protein foods support tissue repair and skin integrity. Adequate protein intake is essential for wound healing. Assessing the client for daily range of motion exercises is important for preventing complications related to immobility, but it may not directly address the prevention of decubitus ulcers. Teaching the family how to perform sterile wound care is significant for wound management but may not be the most effective intervention to prevent further development of decubitus ulcers. Ensuring IV fluids are administered as prescribed is essential for maintaining hydration status but is not the most relevant intervention for preventing decubitus ulcers.
Question 6 of 9
A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.
Question 7 of 9
Based on the Nursing diagnosis of 'Potential for infection related to second and third degree burns,' which intervention has the highest priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is B, the use of careful hand washing technique. Proper hand hygiene is essential in preventing infection, especially in individuals with compromised skin integrity like those with burns. By practicing careful hand washing, healthcare providers reduce the risk of introducing harmful pathogens to the burn wound, thus lowering the chances of infections. Choice A, application of topical antibacterial cream, is important but should follow ensuring proper hand hygiene. Choice C, administration of plasma expanders, is not directly associated with preventing burn-related infections. Choice D, limiting visitors, is significant for infection control, but ensuring proper hand hygiene outweighs this intervention in terms of priority.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for surgery in the morning. The client reports drinking a glass of water at midnight. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the anesthesiologist. When a client reports drinking water close to the time of surgery, it is important to inform the anesthesiologist as it can impact the administration of anesthesia. The anesthesiologist needs this information to make decisions regarding anesthesia administration. Documenting the intake in the medical record is important for documentation purposes, but the immediate action needed is to inform the anesthesiologist. Canceling the surgery is not necessary based solely on the intake of water; the anesthesiologist will determine the appropriate course of action. Instructing the client to fast until the surgery may not be appropriate without consulting the anesthesiologist first, as the situation needs to be assessed by the anesthesia team.
Question 9 of 9
A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL · 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.