HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse determines that a client with cirrhosis is experiencing peripheral neuropathy. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Protecting the client's feet from injury is essential when managing peripheral neuropathy in a client with cirrhosis. Peripheral neuropathy can result in reduced sensation, increasing the risk of injury. Applying a heating pad or keeping the client's feet elevated would not address the primary concern of preventing injury. Assessing the feet and legs for jaundice is important for monitoring liver function, but it is not directly related to managing peripheral neuropathy in this case.
Question 2 of 9
When teaching a patient with diabetes about foot care, which of the following should the nurse emphasize?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Trimming toenails straight across and filing the edges is crucial in diabetic foot care to prevent ingrown toenails and foot injuries. Soaking feet daily can lead to dryness and skin breakdown, increasing the risk of infection. Selecting well-fitting shoes is important to prevent pressure points and skin damage, not tight-fitting shoes. Using heating pads can result in burns or injuries due to decreased sensation in diabetic feet, so it's essential to avoid them.
Question 3 of 9
All of the following are posture and body alignment problems EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thrombosis is a condition involving blood clots and is not related to posture or body alignment, unlike kyphosis, scoliosis, and lumbar lordosis, which are spinal alignment issues. Kyphosis refers to excessive outward curvature of the spine, scoliosis is characterized by a sideways curvature of the spine, and lumbar lordosis involves an exaggerated inward curve in the lower back. Thrombosis, on the other hand, is a condition where blood clots form in the blood vessels, not a posture or body alignment problem.
Question 4 of 9
While performing an inspection of a client's fingernails, the PN observes a suspected abnormality of the nail's shape and character. Which finding should the PN document?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clubbed nails. Clubbed nails are a significant finding often associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. The presence of clubbed nails should be documented for further evaluation. Splinter hemorrhages (Choice B) are tiny areas of bleeding under the nails and are associated with conditions like endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (Choice C) are common and often a normal finding in older adults. Koilonychia or spoon nails (Choice D) refer to nails that are concave or scooped out, often seen in conditions like iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. These conditions are not typically associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease, making them less likely findings in this situation.
Question 5 of 9
Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the nurse to review?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum Creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. Reviewing this value is crucial as it helps assess the client's risk for nephrotoxicity before administering the antibiotic. Elevated serum creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which would increase the risk of nephrotoxicity. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels monitor calcium balance, and WBC count evaluates for infections. While these values are important for overall patient assessment, they are not as specific to assessing nephrotoxicity risk as serum creatinine.
Question 6 of 9
An 8-year-old is placed in 90-90 traction for a fractured femur resulting from a motor vehicle collision. Which finding requires further action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In 90-90 traction, the weights should hang freely and not touch the foot of the bed to maintain proper traction and bone alignment. Option A is not necessarily a concern as bowel movements can be influenced by various factors, including diet changes and pain medication. Option B indicates good caregiver involvement, promoting comfort and preventing complications. Option D demonstrates neurovascular function, which is a positive finding. Therefore, the weights touching the foot of the bed is the finding that requires immediate attention to ensure the effectiveness of the traction.
Question 7 of 9
Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.
Question 8 of 9
In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.
Question 9 of 9
Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with tuberculosis (TB)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Airborne precautions. Tuberculosis (TB) is transmitted via airborne particles, thus requiring airborne precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using an N95 respirator to filter out small infectious particles. Droplet precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through large respiratory droplets. Contact precautions (Choice B) are for direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Standard precautions (Choice D) are used for all patients to prevent the spread of infection through blood, bodily fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.