HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
The mother of a child who has been diagnosed with varicella asks the nurse when the child can return to school. When is the child no longer contagious?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'When the lesions are crusted over.' Varicella is no longer contagious once the lesions are dry and crusted. This stage indicates that the active viral shedding has significantly decreased, reducing the risk of transmission. Choice A, 'When the fever dissipates,' is incorrect because the presence of fever does not necessarily correlate with the contagiousness of varicella. Choice B, 'After the incubation period,' is incorrect as the incubation period occurs before the onset of symptoms and is not relevant to determining contagiousness. Choice C, 'When the lesions have healed,' is incorrect as healed lesions can still be contagious if they are not crusted over.
Question 2 of 9
An 82-year-old female client with type 2 diabetes and degenerative arthritis complains to the nurse that she has a hard time cutting her toenails. What should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For an 82-year-old female client with type 2 diabetes and degenerative arthritis, the nurse should recommend seeking routine nail care with a podiatrist. This is crucial to ensure proper and safe toenail care, reducing the risk of injury and infection, which is especially important for diabetic clients. Encouraging monthly pedicures at a nail salon (choice B) may not address the underlying issues related to diabetes and arthritis. Soaking feet for 10 minutes before cutting nails (choice C) may help soften the nails but does not address the difficulty the client faces in cutting them. Asking a family member to cut toenails (choice D) may not guarantee the expertise needed for proper diabetic foot care, which a podiatrist can provide.
Question 3 of 9
What pathophysiologic process is producing the symptoms of gout in a client with sudden onset of big toe joint pain and swelling?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Gout is characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, which triggers inflammation and pain. This process is known as crystal-induced arthritis. Choice B is incorrect as gout does not involve degeneration of joint cartilage. Choice C is incorrect as gout is not caused by an infection of the joint space. Choice D is incorrect as gout does not result from increased synovial fluid but rather from the deposition of uric acid crystals.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse reports that a client is at risk for a brain attack (stroke) based on which assessment finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carotid bruit. A carotid bruit is a significant risk factor for stroke as it indicates turbulent blood flow due to narrowing of the carotid artery. Nuchal rigidity is associated with meningitis, jugular vein distention can be a sign of heart failure, and palpable cervical lymph nodes may indicate infection, but they are not directly linked to stroke risk.
Question 5 of 9
A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
When speaking to young parents, the nurse states that lead poisoning is one of the most common preventable health problems affecting children. What condition occurs when the level of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. When the amount of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone, it leads to anemia. Malnutrition (Choice A) is a state of inadequate nutrition, not directly related to lead poisoning. Bone pain (Choice C) is a symptom of lead poisoning due to its effects on bones but not directly related to lead ingestion exceeding absorption. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a direct consequence of lead ingestion exceeding absorption by bones.
Question 7 of 9
Parents of a 5-year-old child diagnosed with cognitive impairment have come to the nurse to discuss different approaches to the ongoing care of their child. The nurse should suggest focusing on what activity?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Performing self-care activities. For a 5-year-old child diagnosed with cognitive impairment, it is crucial to focus on teaching them basic self-care skills. This includes activities like dressing themselves, feeding, and personal hygiene. These skills are fundamental for their daily living and independence. Choices A, B, and D are not appropriate for a young child with cognitive impairment. Acquiring job skills is not developmentally suitable at this age, making decisions may be challenging due to cognitive limitations, and reading and doing simple math may be too advanced for their current cognitive abilities.
Question 8 of 9
A male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture. This procedure can help diagnose the cause of burning on urination, which could be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection. Option A, observing for a chancroid-like lesion, may not be the most immediate or relevant action in this case. Option C, assessing for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation, is important but obtaining a culture specimen would provide more specific diagnostic information. Option D, identifying all sexual partners, is relevant for contact tracing but obtaining a culture specimen is the priority to determine the current infection status.
Question 9 of 9
A client with partial-thickness burns to the lower extremities is scheduled for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area. Which intervention should the nurse implement before transporting the client to the physical therapy department?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering an analgesic before whirlpool therapy is the priority intervention in this scenario. Whirlpool therapy for debridement can be painful for the client with partial-thickness burns. Administering an analgesic before the procedure helps manage pain during the debridement process, ensuring the client's comfort. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may be necessary after the whirlpool therapy but is not the immediate pre-transport intervention. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice C) and ensuring nutritional needs are met (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not specifically related to preparing the client for whirlpool therapy.