HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare provider is providing oral care to an unconscious patient and notes that the patient has extremely bad breath. Which term will the healthcare provider use when reporting to the oncoming shift?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct term the healthcare provider will use when reporting the extremely bad breath of the unconscious patient to the oncoming shift is 'Halitosis' (Choice B). Halitosis specifically refers to bad breath. Cheilitis (Choice A) is inflammation of the lips, not related to bad breath. Glossitis (Choice C) is inflammation of the tongue, not directly associated with bad breath. Dental caries (Choice D) are cavities in the teeth, which can contribute to bad breath but are not the term used to describe bad breath itself.
Question 2 of 5
In a mass casualty scenario at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a mass casualty scenario, the triage nurse would prioritize the toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body for treatment last. This child is categorized as 'expectant' due to the extensive injuries, which are unlikely to be survivable even with immediate treatment. The other choices describe injuries that are serious but have a higher likelihood of survival with appropriate and timely intervention. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have increased intracranial pressure requiring urgent evaluation, the preschooler with leg fractures can be stabilized and treated effectively, and the school-age child with singed hair likely has superficial burns which can be managed promptly.
Question 3 of 5
A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.
Question 4 of 5
Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.
Question 5 of 5
A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.