HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
The healthcare provider is assessing the effectiveness of the drug amiodarone. Which client statement best indicates that the drug has been effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 9
In a capillary glucose measurement, a client is to receive 10 units of regular insulin and isophane insulin. How should the nurse prepare?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 9
A client has been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The health care provider prescribes pilocarpine 1% eye drops. The nurse explains that which action of this drug makes it a useful treatment for the client's condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pilocarpine, a cholinergic agent, stimulates the ciliary muscle to contract, which opens the trabecular meshwork and facilitates the outflow of aqueous humor, reducing intraocular pressure. This mechanism helps in managing open-angle glaucoma by improving drainage and lowering pressure within the eye.
Question 4 of 9
A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.
Question 5 of 9
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed dapagliflozin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dapagliflozin, a medication used in diabetes mellitus type 2, is associated with an increased risk of genital infections. This risk is due to its mechanism of action that involves promoting the excretion of glucose through the urine, creating a favorable environment for microbial growth in the genital area. Therefore, monitoring for genital infections is essential when a client is prescribed dapagliflozin.
Question 6 of 9
A client is prescribed an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection (UTI). What instruction should the practical nurse (PN) provide to the client to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The practical nurse (PN) should instruct the client to complete the full course of the antibiotic to ensure the infection is fully treated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Completing the full course of antibiotics helps to eradicate the infection completely and reduces the risk of bacteria developing resistance to the medication.
Question 7 of 9
An adolescent client with a seizure disorder is prescribed the anticonvulsant medication carbamazepine. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider if the client develops which condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Develops a sore throat.' When a client on carbamazepine develops flu-like symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, sore throat, and fever, it could indicate blood dyscrasias (aplastic anemia, leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia), which are potential adverse effects of the medication. These symptoms warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications.
Question 8 of 9
A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 9 of 9
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary.