HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Having the interpreter co-sign the consent form is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By having the interpreter co-sign, it ensures an additional layer of verification of the client's understanding and consent, which is crucial when language barriers exist. This step adds a level of confirmation to safeguard that the client's consent is both valid and well-informed. Option A is not sufficient as gestures and simple terms may not fully clarify the client's understanding, especially for complex medical procedures. Option C is unnecessary since the interpreter has already confirmed the client's consent. Option D does not involve the interpreter in validating the client's understanding, which is essential in this situation to ensure effective communication and comprehension between the client and the healthcare team.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is conducting intake interviews of children at a city clinic. Which child is most susceptible to contracting lead poisoning?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Children playing on aging playground equipment are at higher risk of lead poisoning due to potential exposure from old paint. This is because deteriorating paint on older playground equipment may contain lead, which can be ingested by young children. Choices A, C, and D do not directly involve potential exposure to lead paint, making them less susceptible to lead poisoning compared to a child playing on aging playground equipment.
Question 3 of 9
Two hours after delivering a 9-pound infant, a client saturates a perineal pad every 15 minutes. Although an IV containing Pitocin is infusing, her uterus remains boggy, even with massage. The healthcare provider prescribes methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) 0.2 mg IM STAT. Which complication should the nurse be alert to this client developing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypertension. Methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) is a medication used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. One of the potential side effects is hypertension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure after administering Methergine. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Methergine is not known to cause decreased respiratory rate, increased temperature, or tachycardia.
Question 4 of 9
The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Having the interpreter co-sign the consent form is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By having the interpreter co-sign, it ensures an additional layer of verification of the client's understanding and consent, which is crucial when language barriers exist. This step adds a level of confirmation to safeguard that the client's consent is both valid and well-informed. Option A is not sufficient as gestures and simple terms may not fully clarify the client's understanding, especially for complex medical procedures. Option C is unnecessary since the interpreter has already confirmed the client's consent. Option D does not involve the interpreter in validating the client's understanding, which is essential in this situation to ensure effective communication and comprehension between the client and the healthcare team.
Question 5 of 9
A client taking clopidogrel reports the onset of diarrhea. Which nursing action should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Observing the stool's appearance should be implemented first as it helps determine the nature and possible severity of the diarrhea, which is essential in managing the side effect. Assessing skin turgor (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation. Reviewing laboratory values (Choice C) can provide additional information but is not the initial step. Auscultating bowel sounds (Choice D) is not the priority when the client is experiencing diarrhea.
Question 6 of 9
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for frequent hyperglycemic episodes and a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 10%. Insulin glargine 10 units subcutaneously once a day at bedtime and a sliding scale with insulin aspart q6h are prescribed. What action should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Performing fingerstick glucose assessments q6h with meals is essential in monitoring the client's blood glucose levels closely, especially when managing hyperglycemic episodes and adjusting insulin doses with a sliding scale. This action helps in determining the effectiveness of the prescribed insulin regimen. Reviewing proper foot care and preventing injury is important for long-term diabetic management but not the immediate priority in this scenario. Mixing insulin glargine with insulin aspart is not recommended, as they are different types of insulin with distinct mechanisms of action. Ensuring the availability of insulin aspart for IV use is not relevant to the client's current care plan.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the adult male client to follow when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test is to urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours. This method ensures proper collection for an accurate creatinine clearance measurement. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different procedure for a clean-catch urine sample, not suitable for creatinine clearance. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests catheterization, which is not typically done for a creatinine clearance test, and it is not necessary for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the standard procedure for a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance; the urine should be collected continuously over 24 hours, not at specified intervals.
Question 8 of 9
What explanation is best for the nurse to provide a client who asks the purpose of using the log-rolling technique for turning?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The technique is intended to maintain straight spinal alignment.' Log-rolling is a technique used to move a person as a single unit to maintain the alignment of the spinal column. This is crucial to prevent spinal cord injury, especially in clients with suspected spine fractures. Choice A is incorrect because log-rolling focuses on spinal alignment, not just decreasing back injury risks. Choice C is incorrect because the number of people involved is not the primary purpose of log-rolling, which is maintaining spinal alignment. Choice D is incorrect because while turning instead of pulling may help prevent skin damage, the primary goal of log-rolling is to protect the spine, not the skin.
Question 9 of 9
A female client on the mental health unit frequently asks the nurse when she can be discharged. Then, becoming more anxious, she begins to pace the hallway. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Exploring the client's reasons for wanting to be discharged should be the first intervention as it helps to address underlying anxieties and concerns. By understanding the client's motivations, the nurse can provide appropriate support and interventions. It can also reduce distress and improve the therapeutic relationship. Reviewing the treatment plan (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate distress takes precedence. Informing the healthcare provider (Choice B) can be considered later if necessary. Determining if the client has PRN medication (Choice C) is relevant, but exploring the underlying reasons for the desire to be discharged is more beneficial in this situation.