The doctor has ordered 20 cc per hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set?

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Question 1 of 9

The doctor has ordered 20 cc per hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute, first convert the ordered amount to drops per minute. 20 cc per hour equals 20 drops per hour with 60 cc per drop tubing, which is equivalent to 20 drops per hour * 60 cc per drop = 1200 drops per hour. To find drops per minute, divide 1200 by 60 (minutes in an hour), which equals 20 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 drops per minute. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

Question 2 of 9

A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is supervising an assistive personnel (AP) who is feeding a client who has dysphagia. Which of the following actions by the AP should the nurse identify as correct technique?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct technique for a client with dysphagia is to instruct them to place their chin toward their chest when swallowing. This action helps to close off the airway during swallowing, reducing the risk of aspiration. Elevating the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees during mealtime helps prevent aspiration, but this is not the responsibility of the AP. Withholding fluids until the end of the meal can lead to dehydration and is not a recommended practice. Providing a 10-minute rest period prior to meals is not specifically related to improving swallowing safety for clients with dysphagia.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following changes was enacted by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act expanded school-based health centers to provide additional healthcare services to students. Choice A is incorrect because the creation of national health insurance exchanges was a key provision of the Affordable Care Act, but it was not the only change enacted by the legislation. Choice C is incorrect as while the Affordable Care Act did include provisions for free preventative services for certain groups, it was not applicable to all individuals. Choice D is incorrect as the Act did not specifically address medically managed clinics eligible for federal funding.

Question 5 of 9

What is the primary focus of primary healthcare?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Preventive care. Primary healthcare emphasizes preventive care, which includes promoting overall health, preventing diseases, and providing early intervention to avoid the progression of illnesses. Emergency care (choice A) is focused on immediate medical attention for urgent health situations but is not the primary focus of primary healthcare. Specialized treatment (choice C) refers to care provided by specialists for specific health conditions, which is not the main focus of primary healthcare. Hospital-based services (choice D) involve inpatient care provided in a hospital setting, which is not the primary focus of primary healthcare that aims to provide comprehensive and accessible care at the community level.

Question 6 of 9

When a woman has miscarried in three or more consecutive pregnancies, it is referred to as which type of spontaneous abortion?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Habitual.' Habitual abortion is defined as three or more consecutive miscarriages, making it the appropriate term for this situation. Choice A, 'Inevitable,' refers to a miscarriage that cannot be prevented. Choice B, 'Missed,' refers to a miscarriage where the fetus has died but has not been expelled. Choice D, 'Threatened,' refers to a situation where there is bleeding in early pregnancy but the cervix remains closed.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is preparing to complete an incident report regarding a medication error. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify the medication name and dosage administered to the client in the incident report. This information is crucial for accurate documentation and investigation of the medication error. Choice A is incorrect because incident reports are usually kept confidential and not for personal keeping. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining an order from the client's provider is not necessary to complete an incident report. Choice D, while important, is not the only essential information needed for the incident report.

Question 8 of 9

Which nonpharmacological technique involves the use of electronic monitoring equipment while the patient controls basic bodily mechanisms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Biofeedback. Biofeedback is a nonpharmacological technique that uses electronic monitoring equipment to provide real-time data on physiological processes such as heart rate, muscle tension, and skin temperature. Through this feedback, patients learn to control and regulate these bodily functions voluntarily. Choice A, Meditation, involves focusing the mind and reducing stress through techniques like mindfulness or deep breathing, but it does not specifically rely on electronic monitoring equipment. Choice B, Visualization, is a technique where individuals imagine peaceful scenes to promote relaxation and reduce anxiety, and it also does not involve electronic monitoring. Choice D, Chiropractic, is a healthcare profession that focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of musculoskeletal disorders through manual adjustments and manipulation, which is unrelated to the use of electronic monitoring equipment for controlling bodily functions.

Question 9 of 9

What are the six levels of consciousness from the most to the least responsive level of consciousness? Number all six using 1 as the most conscious and 6 as the least conscious.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct order of the six levels of consciousness from most to least responsive is Alert, Confused, Lethargic, Obtunded, Stuporous, Comatose. Choice A is incorrect because it starts with Obtunded, which is less responsive than Alert. Choice B is incorrect as it doesn't follow the correct order. Choice C is incorrect as Lethargic is more responsive than Obtunded. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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