HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
The client is being taught about a low-sodium diet. Which food should the client avoid?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Canned vegetables. Canned vegetables are often high in sodium due to the preservation process, so they should be avoided on a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits (choice A), fresh chicken (choice C), and unsalted nuts (choice D) are all low-sodium options and can be included in a low-sodium diet. It is important to choose fresh or frozen vegetables over canned ones to reduce sodium intake. Fresh chicken and unsalted nuts are also good protein sources that are naturally low in sodium, making them suitable for a low-sodium diet. Therefore, clients following a low-sodium diet should prioritize fresh, whole foods over processed or canned options.
Question 2 of 9
Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.
Question 3 of 9
After placement of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC), the nurse receives a report of the X-ray findings indicating that the CVC tip is in the client's superior vena cava. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Initiating intravenous fluids as prescribed is the appropriate action when the CVC tip is correctly placed in the superior vena cava. Intravenous fluids can now be administered effectively through the central line. Removing the catheter and applying direct pressure is unnecessary and not indicated as the tip is in the correct position. Securing the catheter using aseptic technique is important for preventing infections but is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter may delay necessary fluid administration, which is the priority at this time.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse observes that a male client's urinary catheter (Foley) drainage tubing is secured with tape to his abdomen and then attached to the bed frame. What action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to secure the tubing to the client's gown instead of his abdomen. Securing the tubing to the client's abdomen can cause discomfort, trauma to the urethra, and increase the risk of infection. Attaching the drainage bag to the bed frame can lead to tension on the catheter, increasing the risk of dislodgement or trauma. Raising the bed does not address the issue of incorrect tubing securing. Observing the appearance of urine is important but secondary to ensuring proper tubing attachment.
Question 5 of 9
A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.
Question 6 of 9
Based on the documentation in the medical record, which action should the nurse implement next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the mother breastfeeding her infant. This action is essential to ensure that the infant is feeding well and to assess maternal-infant bonding. Administering the rubella vaccine subcutaneously (Option A) is not the immediate priority in this scenario as assessing breastfeeding is more crucial. Calling the nursery for the infant's blood type result (Option C) is premature and not the next appropriate step, as it does not address the immediate needs of the newborn. Administering Vicodin one tablet for pain (Option D) is not indicated without further assessment or indication of pain, making it an incorrect choice at this time.
Question 7 of 9
The healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with chronic heart failure is to follow a low-sodium diet. This helps manage the condition by reducing fluid retention and the workload on the heart. High fluid intake can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. While protein is important for overall health, a high-protein diet is not specifically indicated for chronic heart failure. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid retention and increase the workload on the heart.
Question 8 of 9
A client with type 1 diabetes is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The priority intervention for a client with type 1 diabetes experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. In a hypoglycemic state, the priority is to quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is beneficial after the initial treatment of hypoglycemia to prevent recurrence. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is a more invasive intervention typically done in a hospital setting for severe cases.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a hip replacement. Which intervention is most important to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining hip abduction with pillows is the most important intervention to prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis postoperatively. This position helps keep the hip joint stable and prevents excessive internal rotation, which can lead to dislocation. Keeping the client in a low Fowler's position (Choice A) does not provide the necessary support and stability for the hip joint. While early ambulation (Choice C) is important for preventing complications such as blood clots and promoting circulation, it is not the most crucial intervention for preventing dislocation. Placing the client in a prone position (Choice D) can be harmful and increase the risk of dislocation.