HESI LPN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Thalidomide was marketed in the 1960s as a treatment for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Thalidomide was initially marketed as a treatment for insomnia and nausea, particularly in pregnant women. However, it was later found to cause severe birth defects, leading to significant consequences. Choice B, infertility and impotence, is incorrect as thalidomide was not marketed for these conditions. Choices C and D, Down syndrome and Turner syndrome, are genetic conditions and not conditions for which thalidomide was intended as a treatment.
Question 2 of 5
The embryo and fetus develop within a protective _______ in the uterus.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the amniotic sac. The amniotic sac is a fluid-filled structure that surrounds and protects the developing embryo and fetus in the uterus. It provides a cushion against external pressure, allows for movement and growth, and helps maintain a stable environment for the developing fetus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The umbilical cord connects the fetus to the placenta and serves as a conduit for nutrients and waste; the neural tube is a structure that forms the central nervous system in early embryonic development; and the embryonic disk is a structure that forms during gastrulation, one of the early stages of embryonic development.
Question 3 of 5
A client has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metronidazole is the correct choice for treating bacterial vaginosis as it is the first-line medication recommended for this condition. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of bacteria, making it an effective treatment. Choice B, Fluconazole, is an antifungal medication primarily used for treating fungal infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice C, Acyclovir, is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice D, Clindamycin, is also used to treat bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A client at 34 weeks gestation comes to the birthing center complaining of vaginal bleeding that began one hour ago. The nurse's assessment reveals approximately 30ML of bright red vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate of 130 - 140 beats per minute, no contractions, and no complaints of pain. What is the most likely cause of this client's bleeding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa, a condition where the placenta covers the cervix, can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In this scenario, the absence of contractions and pain, along with the presence of significant bright red bleeding, is more indicative of placenta previa rather than abruptio placenta or a ruptured vessel. A normal bloody show typically occurs closer to the onset of labor and is not associated with the amount of bleeding described in the question.
Question 5 of 5
At 12 hours after the birth of a healthy infant, the mother complains of feeling constant vaginal pressure. The nurse determines the fundus is firm and at midline with moderate rubra lochia. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, the mother's complaint of constant vaginal pressure along with a firm fundus and moderate rubra lochia indicates a potential perineal injury or hematoma. The correct action for the nurse to take is to inspect the client's perineal and rectal areas to assess for any signs of trauma or hematoma. Checking the suprapubic area for distention (Choice A) is not the priority here since the symptoms suggest a perineal issue. Advising a warm sitz bath (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen any existing trauma. Applying a fresh pad and checking in 1 hour (Choice D) does not address the need for immediate assessment of the perineal and rectal areas in response to the reported symptoms.