In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Orthodox Jews follow dietary laws (Kashrut) that prohibit mixing meat and dairy products in the same meal. This restriction is known as 'not mixing milk and meat.' Therefore, choice B is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because being an Orthodox Jew does not mean they can eat any food unless it is Yom Kippur, avoid meat on Ash Wednesday, or are necessarily vegetarian.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: During a sickle cell crisis, a child with sickle cell disease is most likely to describe joint pain. Sickle cell disease leads to the blockage of blood flow by sickled red blood cells, causing ischemia and pain, often felt in the joints and other body parts. Fatigue (choice C) is a nonspecific symptom that can occur in various conditions but is not a characteristic symptom of a sickle cell crisis. While decreased hemoglobin (choice A) can be observed in sickle cell disease, it is not a symptom typically described by a child during a sickle cell crisis. Infection (choice D) can trigger a sickle cell crisis but is not the symptom most likely to be described by the child during the crisis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clubbed nails. Clubbed nails are a significant finding often associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. The presence of clubbed nails should be documented for further evaluation. Splinter hemorrhages (Choice B) are tiny areas of bleeding under the nails and are associated with conditions like endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (Choice C) are common and often a normal finding in older adults. Koilonychia or spoon nails (Choice D) refer to nails that are concave or scooped out, often seen in conditions like iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. These conditions are not typically associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease, making them less likely findings in this situation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Auscultating bowel sounds is the best initial action in this situation. It helps the nurse assess bowel function before considering interventions like administering a laxative. Abdominal pain and bloating could be indicative of bowel motility issues, and auscultation can provide crucial information. Encouraging increased fluid intake can be beneficial in promoting bowel movement, but assessing bowel sounds is more immediate to evaluate the current status. Notifying the healthcare provider should be reserved for situations where immediate intervention is needed or if the condition worsens after assessment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Stopping the transfusion immediately is crucial when signs of a transfusion reaction, such as itching and flushing, occur. This action is taken to prevent further exposure to the potentially harmful transfused blood. Applying lotion to the skin, inspecting the infusion site, or obtaining vital signs can be important but are secondary to stopping the transfusion to ensure the safety of the child. Applying lotion may not address the underlying issue of a possible transfusion reaction. Inspecting the infusion site and obtaining vital signs can be done after stopping the transfusion, as patient safety is the top priority in this situation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most crucial nursing action when caring for a patient with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below chest level (choice B). This position helps ensure proper drainage and prevents backflow of fluid or air into the pleural space, promoting optimal functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube every 2 hours (choice A) is incorrect as it can obstruct the drainage system and lead to complications. Emptying the drainage system every hour (choice C) is unnecessary unless there are specific clinical indications. Removing the chest tube when drainage decreases significantly (choice D) is also incorrect as the decision should be based on overall clinical assessment rather than drainage amount alone.