HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Wounds healing by secondary intention involve the gradual filling of the wound with granulation tissue, leading to a higher risk of infection due to prolonged exposure. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because wounds healing by secondary intention take longer to heal and often result in more pain compared to wounds healing by primary intention. Choice D is also incorrect as wounds healing by secondary intention usually require more frequent dressing changes to prevent infection and promote healing.
Question 2 of 9
A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.' Using a soft-bristled toothbrush is crucial as it helps prevent bleeding gums, which is a potential side effect of warfarin therapy. Option A about taking warfarin at the same time every day is a good practice but does not directly relate to preventing side effects. Option B suggesting an increase in green leafy vegetables can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects due to their vitamin K content. Option D advising to avoid alcohol is generally recommended but is not directly related to the specific side effects of warfarin.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional plan to initiate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions (Choice C) involve measures such as negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Contact precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through direct contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet precautions (Choice B) are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, typically over short distances. Protective environment (Choice D) is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens, not for diseases like tuberculosis that spread through the air.
Question 4 of 9
A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.
Question 5 of 9
A 16-year-old enters the emergency department. The triage nurse identifies that this teenager is legally married and signs the consent form for treatment. What would be the appropriate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to proceed with the triage process in the same manner as any adult client. In this scenario, since the teenager is legally married, they have the legal authority to consent to their own treatment. Choice A is incorrect because the teenager, being legally married, can provide their own consent. Choice B is incorrect as it unnecessarily delays treatment by waiting for telephone consent from the partner, which is not required in this case. Choice C is incorrect as the teenager can receive appropriate care in the current emergency department setting without the need for referral.
Question 6 of 9
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with swelling and pain in the left leg. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Measuring the circumference of the left leg is the most appropriate action for an LPN/LVN when assessing a client with a history of DVT and presenting with swelling and pain in the left leg. This measurement helps to assess the extent of swelling objectively and monitor changes in the client's condition. Applying warm compresses (Choice A) may worsen the condition by potentially promoting clot development. Elevating the left leg above the level of the heart (Choice B) is generally recommended for DVT to improve venous return, but measuring the circumference is more appropriate in this scenario. Administering pain medication (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue and should not be the initial action taken.
Question 7 of 9
A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.
Question 8 of 9
When admitting a client with an abdominal wound, which precaution should be taken?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When admitting a client with an abdominal wound, contact precautions should be implemented. Contact precautions are used to prevent the spread of infections that are spread by direct or indirect contact. In the case of abdominal wounds, bacteria and pathogens can easily be transmitted through contact with the wound or wound drainage. Droplet precautions are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Airborne precautions are used for infections spread through the air, like tuberculosis. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infections and should be followed in addition to specific precautions based on the type of infection.
Question 9 of 9
A client with herpes zoster asks the nurse about using complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that this condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acupuncture is contraindicated for clients with herpes zoster due to the risk of introducing an open portal on the skin, which can increase the risk of infection. This therapy involves inserting needles into specific points on the body, potentially causing skin trauma and providing a route for the virus to spread. Biofeedback, aloe, and feverfew are not contraindicated for clients with herpes zoster and can be considered for pain management in this condition. Biofeedback involves using electronic devices to help individuals learn to control physiological processes, aloe is a plant known for its skin-soothing properties, and feverfew is an herb that has been used for pain relief.