HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Wounds healing by secondary intention involve the gradual filling of the wound with granulation tissue, leading to a higher risk of infection due to prolonged exposure. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because wounds healing by secondary intention take longer to heal and often result in more pain compared to wounds healing by primary intention. Choice D is also incorrect as wounds healing by secondary intention usually require more frequent dressing changes to prevent infection and promote healing.
Question 2 of 9
A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.' Using a soft-bristled toothbrush is crucial as it helps prevent bleeding gums, which is a potential side effect of warfarin therapy. Option A about taking warfarin at the same time every day is a good practice but does not directly relate to preventing side effects. Option B suggesting an increase in green leafy vegetables can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects due to their vitamin K content. Option D advising to avoid alcohol is generally recommended but is not directly related to the specific side effects of warfarin.
Question 3 of 9
A client requires an NG tube for stomach decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when inserting the NG tube?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when inserting an NG tube is to help the client take sips of water. This helps facilitate the insertion of the tube by promoting swallowing and passage through the esophagus. Asking the client to swallow assists in guiding the tube into the stomach. Inserting the tube without asking the client to swallow may lead to incorrect placement or discomfort. Advancing the tube continuously without pausing can cause the tube to coil in the esophagus, leading to complications. Using a large-bore tube for insertion is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injury or discomfort for the client.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.
Question 5 of 9
The patient has undergone surgery for a broken leg and has a cast in place. What should the nurse do to prevent skin impairment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To prevent skin impairment in a patient with a cast, the nurse should assess surfaces exposed to the edges of the cast for pressure areas. This is important to prevent pressure ulcers or skin breakdown. Keeping the patient's blood pressure low (Choice B) is not directly related to preventing skin impairment in this scenario. Allowing turning in bed (Choice C) is essential for preventing complications like pressure ulcers and is not contraindicated. Encouraging the patient's dietary intake (Choice D) to maintain hydration is not directly related to preventing skin impairment associated with a cast.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare professional is explaining the use of written consent forms to a newly-licensed healthcare professional. The healthcare professional should ensure that a written consent form has been signed by which of the following clients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Written consent is required for procedures that carry significant risks, such as blood transfusions, to ensure the client's informed consent and understanding of the procedure. In this case, a transfusion of packed red blood cells is an invasive procedure that carries risks, making it essential to have the client's written consent. Choices B, C, and D do not typically require written consent as routine physical examinations, minor surgical procedures without anesthesia, and new medication prescriptions do not carry the same level of risk and complexity as a blood transfusion.
Question 7 of 9
A client with prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider discusses treatment options. What statement should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Offering to talk later if the client changes their mind respects their current choice and keeps the dialogue open. Choice B is not the best response as it may pressure the client to share concerns. Choice C is incorrect as it imposes a decision on the client. Choice D does not acknowledge the client's feelings in the moment and postpones addressing concerns.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is calculating a client's fluid intake over the past 8 hr. Which of the following items should the nurse plan to document on the client's intake and output record as 120 mL of fluid?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 8 oz of ice chips. When calculating fluid intake, the nurse should document half of the volume of ice chips to account for the air in between the chips. Therefore, 8 oz of ice chips equals 120 mL of fluid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not equate to 120 mL of fluid intake as per the given scenario. Choice A, 2 cups of soup, is more than 120 mL. Choice B, 1 quart of water, is significantly more than 120 mL. Choice D, 6 oz of tea, is less than 120 mL.
Question 9 of 9
When interviewing the parents of a child with asthma, what information about the child's environment should be gathered most importantly?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a child with asthma, it is crucial to gather information about potential triggers in their environment. Household pets, such as cats or dogs, are common triggers for asthma attacks due to pet dander and saliva. This information is essential to identify if exposure to pets at home could be exacerbating the child's asthma symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in the context of asthma triggers. New furniture, lead-based paint, and plants like cactus are not typically primary triggers for asthma attacks compared to common allergens like pet dander.