In developing a plan of care for a client admitted to a mental health unit after attempting suicide by taking a handful of medications, which goal has the highest priority?

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HESI CAT Exam 2024 Questions

Question 1 of 9

In developing a plan of care for a client admitted to a mental health unit after attempting suicide by taking a handful of medications, which goal has the highest priority?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Signs a no-self-harm contract. Ensuring the client's immediate safety by having them commit to not engaging in self-harm is the highest priority after a suicide attempt. This measure aims to prevent further harm to the client. While sleep, group therapy, and self-image are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the immediate aftermath of a suicide attempt. Prioritizing the establishment of a no-self-harm contract creates a foundation for addressing other therapeutic goals in the client's care plan.

Question 2 of 9

When attempting to establish risk reduction strategies in a community, the nurse notes that regional studies indicate a high number of persons with growth stunting and irreversible mental deficiencies caused by hypothyroidism (cretinism). The nurse should seek funding to implement which screening measure?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Screening T4 levels in newborns is crucial as it helps in the early detection of hypothyroidism, which can prevent conditions like cretinism. Checking T3 levels in school-aged children (Choice A) is not the most appropriate measure for early detection of hypothyroidism in newborns. Monitoring TSH levels in women over 45 (Choice C) is not directly related to detecting hypothyroidism in newborns. Additionally, monitoring iodine levels in all persons over 60 (Choice D) is not specifically aimed at early detection of hypothyroidism in newborns, which is crucial to prevent cretinism.

Question 3 of 9

A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.

Question 4 of 9

A client who is diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is having difficulty swallowing and articulating words. Which intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with ALS experiencing difficulty swallowing and articulating words is to sit upright and flex the chin forward while swallowing. This position helps manage dysphagia associated with ALS by facilitating the swallowing process. Encouraging speaking slowly and articulating words (Choice A) may be helpful for speech clarity but does not address the swallowing issue. Positioning a communication board (Choice C) would not directly address the swallowing difficulty. Providing feeding utensils with large grip handles (Choice D) is not the priority intervention for managing dysphagia in ALS.

Question 5 of 9

To evaluate the medication's effectiveness in a client with a respiratory tract infection, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: White blood cell (WBC) count. Monitoring the WBC count helps assess the overall response to infection and the effectiveness of the antibiotic. Sputum culture and sensitivity (choice B) are also important to confirm if the antibiotic is targeting the specific pathogen. Choices C and D, droplet precautions and protective environment, are not laboratory values but rather infection control measures that do not directly evaluate the medication's effectiveness in treating the infection.

Question 6 of 9

The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that a client's blood pressure cannot be measured because the client has casts on both arms and is unable to be turned to the prone position for blood pressure measurement in the legs. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When a client cannot have their blood pressure measured due to specific circumstances such as casts on both arms, the nurse should document the reason why the blood pressure cannot be obtained accurately. This documentation is crucial for maintaining a clear record of the client's condition and for continuity of care. Advising the UAP to document the last blood pressure obtained (Choice A) does not address the current inability to measure the blood pressure. Estimating the blood pressure by assessing the pulse volume of radial pulses (Choice B) is not a reliable method for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. Demonstrating how to palpate the popliteal pulse (Choice C) is irrelevant in this situation as it does not provide a solution for accurately measuring the blood pressure.

Question 7 of 9

A male client who fell into the lake while fishing and was submerged for about 3 min was successfully resuscitated by his friends. He was brought to the Emergency Department for evaluation and was admitted for a 24-hour uneventful hospital stay. What follow-up instruction should the nurse give?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: After being submerged in water, the client should be instructed to seek medical care promptly if a fever develops since complications may arise later. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to the potential complications from submersion in water and are therefore incorrect. Avoiding smoke-filled environments, increasing oral fluids for a productive cough, and scheduling frequent rest periods are not the priority concerns in this scenario.

Question 8 of 9

The nurse is assessing a 3-month-old infant who had a pylorotomy yesterday. This child should be medicated for pain based on which finding?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In infants, restlessness can be a significant indicator of discomfort or pain, necessitating appropriate pain management. While choices B, C, and D can also be associated with pain, restlessness is a more general and reliable indicator in this scenario. A clenched fist might indicate pain or distress, but it is not as specific as restlessness in assessing pain in infants. Increased pulse rate and respiratory rate can be influenced by various factors other than pain, making them less reliable indicators of pain in this context.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse working on a mental health unit is prioritizing nursing care activities due to a staffing shortage. One practical nurse (PN) is on the unit with the nurse, and another RN is expected to arrive within two hours. Clients need to be awakened, and morning medications need to be prepared. Which plan is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The best plan for the nurse to implement is to ask the PN to administer medications as clients are awakened. This approach ensures that medication administration and client care are efficiently managed despite the staffing shortage. Option A is incorrect as it may disrupt the workflow and create unnecessary chaos. Option B is not the best choice as it does not address the immediate need for medication administration. Option D is not ideal as it delays client care until additional staff arrive, potentially compromising patient safety and timely medication administration.

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