HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Four clients at full term present to the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should a nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes requires immediate assessment as she may be in active labor or at risk of infection. The vaginal show and leaking membranes suggest potential rupture of membranes and the start of labor. Assessing her first ensures prompt management and monitoring. The other options, while important, do not indicate immediate or emergent needs. Contractions every three minutes in a multipara can be managed with ongoing monitoring; non-stress tests and biophysical profiles can be scheduled and are not acute needs. Burning on urination and urinary frequency in a primipara may indicate a urinary tract infection, which is important but not as urgent as assessing for active labor or rupture of membranes.
Question 2 of 5
Chromosomes are _____ structures found in cells.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chromosomes are rod-shaped structures that carry genetic information in the form of DNA. They are typically seen as elongated structures when visualized under a microscope. Choice B, circular, is incorrect as chromosomes do not have a circular shape; they are linear. Choice C, cone-shaped, is not accurate as chromosomes do not resemble cones in any way. Choice D, octagonal, is also incorrect as chromosomes do not have an octagonal appearance. Therefore, the correct answer is A, rod-shaped, which accurately describes the shape of chromosomes.
Question 3 of 5
A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating 'I'm bleeding a lot.' What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, especially after delivering a macrosomic infant and augmenting labor with oxytocin. Uterine atony is characterized by the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The other options, such as retained placental fragments (A), unrepaired vaginal lacerations (B), and puerperal infection (D), are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario. Retained placental fragments can cause bleeding, but this typically presents earlier than 4 hours postpartum. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations would likely be evident sooner and not typically result in significant bleeding. Puerperal infection is not a common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage unless there are other signs of infection present.
Question 4 of 5
Jill bears the genetic code for Von Willebrand disease, but she has never developed the illness herself. Jill would be considered:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Jill is a carrier of the recessive gene for Von Willebrand disease. Being a carrier means that she has one copy of the gene but does not show symptoms of the disease. Carriers can pass on the gene to their offspring. Choice B is incorrect as being a carrier does not mean she is susceptible to developing the disease after adolescence. Choice C is incorrect as 'acceptor' is not a term used in genetics in this context. Choice D is incorrect as susceptibility to the disease is not related to late adulthood in carriers of a recessive gene.
Question 5 of 5
A client is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the second stage of labor, the cervix is fully dilated, and the client delivers the newborn. The expulsion of the placenta occurs during the third stage of labor, not the second stage. Regular contractions typically begin in the first stage of labor, not the second. Gradual dilation of the cervix occurs during the first stage of labor, specifically during the active phase.
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