HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Following surgery on the neck, the client asks the LPN why the head of the bed is up so high. The LPN should tell the client that the high-Fowler position is preferred for what reason?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The high-Fowler position is preferred after neck surgery to reduce edema at the operative site. Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous return and drainage, aiding in decreasing swelling and fluid accumulation, which helps reduce edema at the operative site. Choice A is incorrect as the main purpose is not solely about reducing strain on the incision. Choice B is incorrect because while drainage may occur, it is not the primary reason for maintaining the high-Fowler position. Choice C is incorrect as providing stimulation is not the primary rationale for positioning the client in high-Fowler.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is providing care to a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Securing the catheter to the client's thigh is the correct action to prevent CAUTIs. By securing the catheter, movement is minimized, reducing the risk of introducing bacteria into the urinary tract. Choice A is incorrect because routine irrigation of the catheter is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as emptying the catheter bag every 8 hours is important for proper drainage but does not directly prevent CAUTIs. Choice C is incorrect because cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution does not address the main source of CAUTIs related to catheter care.
Question 3 of 9
When applying an ice bag to a client's ankle following a sports injury, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Filling the ice bag two-thirds full is the correct action as it ensures the effectiveness of the ice application while allowing some space for the ice to move and conform to the injury. Choice B is incorrect because the ice bag should be applied with a barrier like a cloth to prevent direct contact with the skin, which can lead to ice burns. Choice C is wrong as ice should typically be applied for 20 minutes at a time to avoid tissue damage. Choice D is also incorrect as ice is preferred over frozen gel packs for immediate sports injury management.
Question 4 of 9
What should be done when caring for a client who died?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When caring for a deceased client, the correct sequence of actions involves first obtaining any necessary orders, then removing tubes, washing the client, asking the family for specific requests, and finally placing identification tags. This order ensures proper care and respect for the deceased individual. Option A presents the correct order of actions. Choice B is incorrect because washing the client should be done after removing tubes. Choice C is incorrect as it does not follow the correct order of actions. Choice D is incorrect because asking the family should be done after caring for the client's body, not before.
Question 5 of 9
A client with a terminal illness is being educated by a healthcare provider about her decision to decline resuscitation in her living will. The client asks about the scenario of having difficulty breathing upon arrival at the emergency department.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because applying oxygen through a tube in the nose provides comfort and aligns with the client's wishes for palliative care without resuscitation. This intervention can help alleviate breathing difficulties and maintain comfort without initiating full resuscitation efforts, respecting the client's decision. Choice B is incorrect as it goes against the client's expressed wish to decline resuscitation in her living will. Choice C is not the most appropriate response as it does not directly address the client's immediate concern of difficulty breathing and lacks specificity. Choice D, although focusing on comfort measures, is less specific than the correct choice A in addressing the client's immediate need for assistance with breathing.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.
Question 7 of 9
A mother tells the nurse that her 2-year-old toddler has temper tantrums and says 'no' every time the mother tries to help them get dressed. The nurse should recognize the toddler is manifesting which of the following stages of development?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trying to increase independence. Toddlers around the age of 2 often exhibit behaviors like temper tantrums and saying 'no' as they are asserting their independence and autonomy. This behavior is a normal part of their developmental stage where they are starting to explore and assert their own preferences and desires. Choice B, developing a sense of trust, is more relevant to infants during the trust vs. mistrust stage. Choice C, establishing a new identity, is typically associated with adolescence and identity formation. Choice D, attempting to master a skill, is more indicative of a child trying to learn and develop new abilities rather than the behavior described in the scenario.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is preparing an infusion for a client who was hospitalized with deep-vein thrombosis. The orders read: 25,000 units of heparin in 250 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride to infuse at 800 units/hr. At what rate should the nurse set the infusion pump?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, use the formula: (Desired units/hr / Total units) Volume. In this case, it would be (800 units/hr / 25,000 units) 250 mL = 8 mL/hr. Therefore, the nurse should set the infusion pump at 8 mL/hr. Choice B, 10 mL/hr, is incorrect because it does not match the calculated rate. Choices C and D, 12 mL/hr and 15 mL/hr respectively, are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided data.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate that the fluid volume deficit is improving. In cases of fluid volume deficit, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, a decrease in heart rate after fluid resuscitation suggests that the body's perfusion status is improving. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fluid volume deficit typically causes tachycardia, not a decrease in heart rate, and would not result in a decrease in blood pressure or an increase in respiratory rate as primary signs of improvement.