Following delivery of a newborn, the 21-year-old mother is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding. You note that her heart rate has increased from 90 to 120 beats/min and she is diaphoretic. Management should include

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the 21-year-old mother is showing signs of hemorrhagic shock with increased heart rate, diaphoresis, and vaginal bleeding. The appropriate management includes providing oxygen to support tissue perfusion, treating for shock to restore adequate circulation, and performing uterine massage to help control bleeding during transport. Options A, B, and D do not address the comprehensive management needed for postpartum hemorrhage in this situation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "These responses are replaced by voluntary activity at about five months of age." The grasp reflex and startle reflex (Moro reflex) are normal in newborns but typically disappear as the infant's nervous system matures and voluntary control develops. Choice A is incorrect because checking the responses before deciding a course of action does not address the developmental milestone related to the reflexes. Choice B is incorrect as it jumps to a conclusion of developmental delay without considering the normal developmental process. Choice C is incorrect as additional sensory stimulation is not necessary for the return of these reflexes, as they are expected to naturally diminish as part of normal development.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The classification system of congenital heart defects into acyanotic or cyanotic defects is problematic because children with acyanotic heart defects may develop cyanosis, complicating the differentiation. Cyanosis can occur in some acyanotic defects due to various reasons such as right-to-left shunting or decreased pulmonary blood flow, making the classification based solely on cyanosis misleading. Choice A is incorrect because while the classification may involve hemodynamics, the main issue lies in the potential for acyanotic defects to develop cyanosis. Choice B is incorrect as the ease of identifying children with cyanotic defects does not address the main problem with the classification system. Choice C is also incorrect as the presence of cyanosis is not the only factor determining the classification's validity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is crucial for detecting early signs of infection, a common complication in this condition. In nephrotic syndrome, the child's immune system is compromised, making them more susceptible to infections. Monitoring for fever or any changes in temperature can help healthcare providers intervene promptly to prevent further complications. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Encephalopathy (choice C) refers to brain dysfunction and is not a common complication of nephrotic syndrome. Edema (choice D) is a primary manifestation of nephrotic syndrome but is not typically monitored through temperature assessment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Visible peristalsis and weight loss are classic clinical manifestations of pyloric stenosis. Visible peristalsis refers to the wave-like movements in the abdomen caused by the stomach trying to empty into the intestines due to the obstruction at the pylorus. Weight loss is often seen due to inadequate feeding and vomiting associated with this condition. Choices A, B, and D are not typical of pyloric stenosis. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation are more indicative of conditions like peritonitis. A rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds are more suggestive of conditions like constipation or bowel obstruction. Distention of the lower abdomen and constipation are not specific to pyloric stenosis and may be seen in various gastrointestinal issues.