Examination reveals that the laboring client's cervix is dilated to 2 centimeters, 70% effaced with the presenting part at -2 station. The client tells the nurse, 'I need my epidural now, this hurts.' The nurse's response to the client is based on which information?

Questions 46

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Maternity HESI Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Examination reveals that the laboring client's cervix is dilated to 2 centimeters, 70% effaced with the presenting part at -2 station. The client tells the nurse, 'I need my epidural now, this hurts.' The nurse's response to the client is based on which information?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Administering an epidural too early in labor, especially at 2 cm dilation, can slow down the progress of labor. It is usually recommended to wait until labor is more established. Choice A is incorrect because catheterization is not a prerequisite for epidural administration. Choice C is incorrect as waiting until 8 cm dilation is not a standard requirement for epidural administration. Choice D is incorrect because the baby's station being at zero is not a strict criterion for epidural administration.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse has received a report regarding a client in labor. The woman's last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and -2. What is the nurse's interpretation of this assessment?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the assessment provided is that the cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. In the given assessment, the measurements are ordered as dilation, effacement, and station. Choice A is incorrect as it wrongly places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice C is incorrect because it places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice D is also incorrect as it incorrectly states that the presenting part is below the ischial spines, even though it correctly mentions the dilation and effacement of the cervix.

Question 3 of 9

After mitosis, the genetic code is identical in new cells unless _________ occur through radiation or other environmental influences.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: After mitosis, the genetic code is typically preserved and remains identical in the new cells. However, mutations can occur due to radiation or environmental influences, leading to changes in the DNA sequence and potentially altering the genetic code. Therefore, the correct answer is 'mutations.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because reductions, expulsions, and conceptions do not accurately describe the changes in the genetic code that can result from external factors. Mutations are the only option that reflects the alteration in the genetic code caused by external influences, making it the correct choice in this context.

Question 4 of 9

During which of the following periods does the development of arms and legs occur in a pregnancy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The development of arms and legs occurs during the critical period of the fourth to eighth weeks of pregnancy. This timeframe is crucial for the formation of limbs and other key body parts. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the development of the lungs, heart, and stomach respectively occurs at different stages of fetal development and is not primarily associated with the fourth to eighth weeks of pregnancy.

Question 5 of 9

A healthcare provider is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a preterm newborn at 32 weeks of gestation, healthcare providers should expect minimal arm recoil. This finding is common in preterm infants due to lower muscle tone. Choice B, a popliteal angle of less than 90°, is incorrect for this age group. Creases over the entire sole (Choice C) typically develop at term age, not at 32 weeks of gestation. Sparse lanugo (Choice D) is a normal finding in preterm infants but is not specific to those at 32 weeks of gestation.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 6 hours old and has a bedside glucometer reading of 65 mg/dL. The newborn's mother has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A bedside glucometer reading of 65 mg/dL is within the normal range for a newborn. Reassessing the blood glucose level prior to the next feeding ensures ongoing monitoring without unnecessary intervention. Obtaining a blood sample for a serum glucose level (Choice A) is not necessary as the initial reading is normal. Feeding the newborn immediately (Choice B) may not be indicated and could lead to unnecessary interventions. Administering dextrose solution IV (Choice C) is not warranted as the glucose level is within the normal range and does not require immediate correction.

Question 7 of 9

Chromosomes are _____ structures found in cells.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Chromosomes are rod-shaped structures that carry genetic information in the form of DNA. They are typically seen as elongated structures when visualized under a microscope. Choice B, circular, is incorrect as chromosomes do not have a circular shape; they are linear. Choice C, cone-shaped, is not accurate as chromosomes do not resemble cones in any way. Choice D, octagonal, is also incorrect as chromosomes do not have an octagonal appearance. Therefore, the correct answer is A, rod-shaped, which accurately describes the shape of chromosomes.

Question 8 of 9

A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.

Question 9 of 9

A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is pregnant. The healthcare provider should expect which of the following laboratory values to increase?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, the body increases the production of red blood cells (RBCs) to meet the increased oxygen demands. This physiological response is known as physiological anemia of pregnancy. Therefore, the RBC count is expected to increase during pregnancy. Bilirubin levels may remain relatively stable, fasting blood glucose levels might fluctuate due to gestational diabetes, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are not typically affected by pregnancy, making them less likely to increase in this scenario. The correct answer is A because an increase in RBC count is a normal physiological adaptation to pregnancy to support the increased oxygen needs of the mother and the growing fetus. Bilirubin, a product of red blood cell breakdown, is more related to liver function and not expected to increase during pregnancy. Fasting blood glucose levels may vary due to gestational diabetes, but it is not a consistent finding in all pregnant individuals. BUN levels are related to kidney function and are not typically impacted by pregnancy, making it an unlikely choice for an expected increase in laboratory values during pregnancy.

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