HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI Questions
Question 1 of 9
During an admission history assessment, a client informs the nurse about consuming herbal tea every afternoon at work to alleviate stress. What ingredient is likely present in the tea?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chamomile. Chamomile tea is commonly used for stress relief. Choice B, Ginseng, is not typically used in teas for stress relief but for energy and immune system support. Choice C, Ginger, is more commonly used for digestive health and nausea. Choice D, Echinacea, is often used to boost the immune system. Therefore, in the context of stress relief, Chamomile is the most appropriate ingredient.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is planning care for a client who has hypernatremia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to infuse hypotonic IV fluids. In hypernatremia, there is an elevated sodium concentration in the blood, and diluting it with hypotonic fluids helps to lower the sodium levels. Implementing a fluid restriction or increasing sodium intake would worsen hypernatremia by further concentrating sodium in the body. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used for treating hyperkalemia, not hypernatremia.
Question 3 of 9
A client who has just had a mastectomy has a closed wound suction device (hemovac) in place. Which nursing action will ensure proper operation of the device?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Collapsing the device when it is 1/2 to 2/3 full of air is the correct nursing action to ensure proper operation of a closed wound suction device (hemovac). This action maintains negative pressure, which is essential for proper suction and drainage of the wound. Emptying the device every 4 hours (Choice B) is not necessary as the focus should be on collapsing it appropriately. Replacing the device every 24 hours (Choice C) is not a standard practice unless indicated by the healthcare provider. Keeping the device above the level of the surgical site (Choice D) is not necessary for the device's proper operation; collapsing it to maintain negative pressure is the key action.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is admitting a client. Which of the following information should the nurse document in the client's record first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When admitting a client to a medical-surgical unit, documenting the admission date and time is crucial as it establishes the timeline for the client's care. This information ensures accurate tracking of interventions and facilitates communication among the healthcare team. While assessment, history of present illness, and plan of care are important components of the admission process, documenting the admission date and time takes priority to establish a baseline for care delivery. Without the admission date and time, the continuity of care and coordination among healthcare providers may be compromised.
Question 5 of 9
A client has a fecal impaction. Before digital removal of the mass, which of the following types of enemas should be administered to soften the feces?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An oil retention enema is the most appropriate choice to soften and lubricate the feces before digital removal. Oil retention enemas help in making the stool easier to remove digitally due to their lubricating properties. Soapsuds, saline, and hypertonic enemas are not specifically designed to soften feces and are used for different purposes. Soapsuds enemas are used for cleansing, saline enemas for bowel evacuation, and hypertonic enemas for bowel distension in preparation for diagnostic procedures.
Question 6 of 9
A group of newly licensed nurses is being taught about the Braden Scale by a nurse. Which of the following responses by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the Braden Scale measures six elements: Sensory Perception, Moisture, Activity, Mobility, Nutrition, Friction, and Shear. The other choices are incorrect because: Choice A states that the client's age is not a factor in the measurement, which is accurate as age is not included in the Braden Scale. Choice C incorrectly states that a lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers, which is the opposite of how the Braden Scale works. Choice D inaccurately describes the scoring range of each element on the Braden Scale, which is not from 1 to 4 points but rather from 1 to 3.
Question 7 of 9
A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid-volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fluid-volume deficit causes tachycardia. With correction of the imbalance, the heart rate should return to the expected range. An increase in hematocrit (Choice A) would indicate hemoconcentration, not a successful fluid replacement. An increase in respiratory rate (Choice B) could indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, not improvement in fluid volume status. A decrease in capillary refill time (Choice D) may indicate improved peripheral perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid replacement success.
Question 8 of 9
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.
Question 9 of 9
While starting an intravenous infusion (IV) for a client, the nurse notices that her gloved hands get spotted with blood. The client has not been diagnosed with any infection transmitted via the bloodstream. Which of the following should the nurse do as soon as the task is completed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After completing the task, the nurse should remove the gloves carefully and follow with hand hygiene. This practice is crucial to prevent the transmission of any potential pathogens, maintain cleanliness, and reduce the risk of infection. Changing gloves and continuing without proper hand hygiene may lead to contamination. Washing hands immediately without removing gloves is not recommended as it does not ensure thorough hand hygiene. Reporting the incident to the supervisor should be done if there are specific protocols in place for such incidents, but immediate hand hygiene is the priority in this scenario to ensure patient and nurse safety.