During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer. What findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A mole with an asymmetrical appearance. Asymmetry is a key characteristic of potential skin malignancy. An asymmetrical mole does not have a uniform shape when divided in half. This irregularity raises suspicion for skin cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A mole with a regular border (B) is more likely to be benign. A mole that is the same color throughout (C) is also a feature commonly seen in benign moles. Additionally, a mole smaller than 6mm in diameter (D) is not necessarily indicative of malignancy, as some melanomas can be smaller or larger than this size.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial action when an IV line infiltrates is to discontinue the IV and restart it in another site. This is crucial to prevent complications such as tissue damage, phlebitis, and infection that can result from the infiltration. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) is not recommended as it can exacerbate the tissue damage caused by the infiltration. Aspirating the IV line and flushing it with normal saline (Choice C) is not appropriate for an infiltrated IV line as it does not address the main issue of infiltration. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, the immediate priority is to discontinue the infiltrated IV to prevent further harm and ensure proper delivery of fluids or medications.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the most concerning laboratory value is an arterial pH of 7.20. An arterial pH of 7.20 indicates severe acidosis, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention. This pH level reflects a significant imbalance in the body's acid-base status, potentially leading to serious complications. High blood glucose levels (choice A) are expected in DKA but do not directly indicate the severity of acidosis. A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L (choice B) is low but not as immediately critical as a pH of 7.20. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L (choice D) is elevated, which can occur in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but it is not the most concerning value in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is the correct answer as it is a good source of complete protein that contains all essential amino acids required for maintaining a positive nitrogen balance for wound healing. Complete proteins provide all essential amino acids needed by the body. White rice, apples, and green beans do not offer complete proteins like cheddar cheese, making them inadequate choices for this purpose.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client has a new prescription for wrist restraints is to pad the client's wrists before applying the restraints. This is important to prevent skin breakdown and injury. Tying the restraints to the side rails of the bed (Choice B) is unsafe and can lead to potential harm for the client. Similarly, securing the restraints to the bed frame (Choice C) is not appropriate as it can restrict the client's movement and cause discomfort. Using a quick-release knot to tie the restraints (Choice D) is also incorrect as it may compromise the effectiveness of the restraints in ensuring client safety.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To promote wound healing in a postoperative client with poor nutritional intake, the nurse should include a protein intake of 1.5 g/kg of body weight per day in the plan of care. Proteins are essential for tissue repair and wound healing. Increasing carbohydrate intake or administering high-dose vitamin supplements may not directly promote wound healing. Ensuring a daily intake of 1000 calories may not provide adequate nutrients for optimal wound healing.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Before starting an intensive exercise program, it is crucial for the client to have a complete physical examination. This examination ensures that the client is physically fit to engage in such activities and helps in identifying any underlying health issues that could be exacerbated by the exercise regimen. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on stress levels related to eating habits rather than the importance of a physical examination for safety. Choice C is incorrect as exercise and stress management classes can complement each other rather than being mutually exclusive. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring weight loss, while important, is not as critical as ensuring the client's physical readiness for the exercise program.