HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain Questions
Question 1 of 9
During a routine prenatal visit, a nurse measures a client's fundal height at 26 weeks gestation. What should the fundal height be?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Between 24 to 28 cm.' Fundal height is expected to be approximately equal to the weeks of gestation, so at 26 weeks, the fundal height should typically range between 24 to 28 cm. Choice A is incorrect because fundal height is not an exact measurement of gestational age in centimeters. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a general description above the umbilicus, which is not specific to 26 weeks gestation. Choice D is incorrect as the fundal height would not reach below the xiphoid process at 26 weeks gestation.
Question 2 of 9
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site is the preferred location for this injection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults due to its muscle mass and lower risk of nerve injury. The deltoid muscle is more commonly used for vaccines in adults, the vastus lateralis muscle is preferred in infants and young children, and the dorsogluteal muscle is associated with a higher risk of nerve injury and is no longer recommended for intramuscular injections.
Question 3 of 9
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IM injection to an adult client. Which site is the preferred location for this injection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the preferred site for IM injections in adults due to its muscle mass and low risk of nerve injury. The deltoid muscle, although commonly used for vaccines in adults due to easy accessibility, has a smaller muscle mass making it less ideal for IM injections. The vastus lateralis muscle is typically used in infants and young children, not in adults. The dorsogluteal site has a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and is no longer recommended for IM injections in any age group.
Question 4 of 9
When counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the pulse is weak and irregular. To record the most accurate heart rate, what should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds. The apical pulse is more accurate, especially when peripheral pulses are weak or irregular. Counting the apical pulse for a full minute provides a more precise heart rate measurement. Option A is incorrect because waiting for thirty minutes is unnecessary and could delay potential interventions. Option B is incorrect because doubling the radial pulse rate may not provide an accurate representation of the heart rate. Option D is incorrect because comparing radial pulses bilaterally does not give the most accurate heart rate measurement; the apical pulse is preferred in this situation.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes about foot care. Which instruction is most important to prevent complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inspect feet daily for cuts or sores. Daily foot inspection is crucial for clients with diabetes to detect early signs of injury or infection. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice A) can lead to skin maceration, making the skin more susceptible to breakdown. Applying moisturizer between the toes (choice B) can increase moisture and the risk of fungal infections. While wearing cotton socks (choice C) is beneficial for diabetic foot care, it is not as crucial as daily foot inspections to prevent complications.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering morphine is a priority intervention during the acute phase of myocardial infarction (MI). Morphine not only provides pain relief but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because isometric exercises can increase myocardial oxygen demand and are not recommended during the acute phase of MI. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed, not keeping the client flat, is preferred to reduce workload on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because fluid intake should be encouraged unless contraindicated, as adequate hydration is essential for cardiac function.
Question 7 of 9
Based on the Nursing diagnosis of 'Potential for infection related to second and third degree burns,' which intervention has the highest priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is B, the use of careful hand washing technique. Proper hand hygiene is essential in preventing infection, especially in individuals with compromised skin integrity like those with burns. By practicing careful hand washing, healthcare providers reduce the risk of introducing harmful pathogens to the burn wound, thus lowering the chances of infections. Choice A, application of topical antibacterial cream, is important but should follow ensuring proper hand hygiene. Choice C, administration of plasma expanders, is not directly associated with preventing burn-related infections. Choice D, limiting visitors, is significant for infection control, but ensuring proper hand hygiene outweighs this intervention in terms of priority.
Question 8 of 9
A client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide is to monitor pulse rate daily before taking the medication. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, so it is crucial to assess the pulse rate before administering the medication. This practice helps ensure that the heart rate is not too low for the safe use of digoxin. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take digoxin with a high-fiber meal. Choice C is also incorrect because there is no need to avoid dairy products while on digoxin. Choice D is incorrect since blurred vision is not a common side effect of digoxin; hence, it is not the most critical instruction to provide.
Question 9 of 9
A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary modifications. What should be emphasized?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In managing GERD, dietary modifications play a significant role. Avoiding spicy and fatty foods helps reduce irritation, while eating small, frequent meals prevents overeating, which can trigger reflux. Avoiding meals before bedtime allows for better digestion and reduces the likelihood of acid reflux during the night. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are crucial in managing GERD symptoms, making choice D the correct answer.