HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI Questions
Question 1 of 9
During a blood transfusion, which observation indicates that the client is experiencing a transfusion reaction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Complaints of back pain and shortness of breath are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a hemolytic reaction. This reaction can lead to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, causing back pain and shortness of breath due to clot formation in the blood vessels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery. Warmth, flushing, rash, chills, and fever are more commonly associated with allergic reactions or febrile non-hemolytic reactions during transfusions. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect in this context.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse on a surgical unit is receiving a client who had abdominal surgery from the postanesthesia care unit. Which of the following assessments should the nurse make first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the airway first. Ensuring a clear and patent airway is crucial to maintaining adequate oxygenation and ventilation post-surgery. Assessing the airway takes precedence over other assessments as a compromised airway can lead to hypoxia and respiratory distress. Checking blood pressure, the surgical site, or level of consciousness are important but are secondary to ensuring the airway is clear and the client can breathe effectively.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare professional is using the I-SBAR communication tool to provide the client's provider with information about the client. The healthcare professional should convey the client's pain status in which portion of the report?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the I-SBAR communication tool, the 'Assessment' portion is where the healthcare professional should convey the client's pain status. This section includes the current patient information, such as the client's pain level, to provide a comprehensive view of the client's condition. Choice B ('Situation') typically involves a brief summary of the client's problem or reason for the communication. Choice C ('Background') usually covers the client's medical history and background information. Choice D ('Recommendation') focuses on the healthcare professional's suggestions or requests regarding the client's care plan, which may include pain management strategies but not the current pain status.
Question 4 of 9
When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse providing care for a client who reports pain. The nurse checked the client's MAR and noted the last dose of pain medication was administered 6 hours ago. The prescription specifies administration every 4 hours PRN for pain. The nurse administered the medication and followed up with the client 40 minutes later, who reported improvement. What did the newly licensed nurse overlook in the nursing process?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Assessment.' In the nursing process, assessment is the first step, crucial before any intervention. Assessment involves gathering data about the client's condition to establish a baseline for evaluating responses to interventions. In this scenario, the newly licensed nurse missed assessing the client's pain intensity, location, quality, and other relevant factors before administering the pain medication. While the follow-up evaluation with the client is commendable, it cannot replace the initial assessment. Planning involves setting goals and outcomes, intervention is the action taken to achieve these goals, and evaluation assesses the client's response to the intervention.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse on the IV team is conducting an in-service education program about the complications of IV therapy. Which of the following statements by an attendee indicates an understanding of the manifestations of infiltration? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement is: 'The temperature around the IV site is cooler.' Cooler temperature around the site is indicative of infiltration, where IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing tissue swelling. The other options are incorrect: B) An increase in infusion rate is not a sign of infiltration; instead, it could indicate an issue with the infusion pump or the IV catheter. C) Redness around the IV site is more indicative of infection rather than infiltration. D) A damp IV dressing is more suggestive of a leak in the IV system, not infiltration.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following clients is at increased risk for body-image disturbances?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients who have undergone significant visible body changes, like amputation, are at increased risk for body-image disturbances. Amputation can have a profound impact on self-image and body perception due to the visible structural alteration. While conditions like laparoscopic appendectomy, mastectomy, and cardiac catheterization may also affect body image, they are less likely to cause significant disturbances compared to visible changes like amputation.