HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.
Question 2 of 9
A client with foul-smelling drainage from an incision on the upper left arm is admitted with a suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which nursing interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When dealing with a client suspected of having MRSA, the nurse should implement contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using gowns and gloves, along with following proper hand hygiene practices. Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity may be necessary for diagnostic purposes, but it is not directly related to preventing the spread of infection in this case. Using standard precautions and wearing a mask are not sufficient when dealing with MRSA; contact precautions are specifically required to prevent transmission. Monitoring the client's white blood cell count is important in assessing infection status but is not a primary intervention to prevent the spread of MRSA.
Question 3 of 9
What is the primary purpose of a chest tube in a client's care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To drain air and fluid from the pleural space. A chest tube is primarily used to remove accumulated air or fluid in the pleural space, preventing lung collapse or compromise of lung function. This intervention aims to re-expand the lung and enhance respiratory function. Choice B is incorrect because preventing infection is not the primary purpose of a chest tube. Choice C is incorrect as lung expansion is a result of draining the pleural space, not the primary goal. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring intrathoracic pressure is not the main objective of a chest tube insertion.
Question 4 of 9
A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder who is taking lithium. What is the most important information the nurse should provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor sodium intake.' Sodium levels can affect lithium levels in the body, so it is crucial to maintain a consistent sodium intake to prevent toxicity or subtherapeutic levels. Option A is incorrect because lithium is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Option C, reporting signs of weight gain, is relevant but not as critical as monitoring sodium intake. Option D, avoiding excessive caffeine intake, is important for some individuals but not as essential as monitoring sodium levels when taking lithium.
Question 6 of 9
After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse's immediate intervention? The client who is...
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.
Question 7 of 9
A hospitalized toddler who is recovering from a sickle cell crisis holds a toy and says, 'Mine.' According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, this child's behavior is a demonstration of which developmental stage?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The toddler's behavior of asserting possession ('Mine') reflects a desire for independence, aligning with Erikson's stage of Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt. This stage, typical for toddlers aged 1-3 years, focuses on developing a sense of control and independence. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Industry vs. Inferiority relates to middle childhood, Initiative vs. Guilt pertains to preschoolers, and Trust vs. Mistrust is associated with infancy.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is providing care for a client with a draining postoperative wound infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which is the most important action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering prescribed antibiotics is crucial in treating MRSA infections. MRSA is a type of bacteria that is resistant to many antibiotics, including methicillin. Therefore, prompt administration of the appropriate antibiotics is essential to target the MRSA infection effectively. Encouraging increased oral fluids (Choice A) and providing high-protein snacks (Choice B) may be beneficial for overall recovery but are not the most important actions in treating an MRSA infection. Changing the wound dressing (Choice C) is important for wound care but does not directly address the infection caused by MRSA.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gradual onset of dyspnea.' While pulmonary embolism can present with various symptoms, the most common include sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain (often pleuritic in nature), tachypnea, and tachycardia. Bilateral leg swelling is more commonly associated with conditions like deep vein thrombosis, not pulmonary embolism. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation may be seen in conditions like pneumothorax, not typically in pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the gradual onset of dyspnea is the most indicative symptom of pulmonary embolism in this scenario.